Q1.
I am afraid that if I asked him again, he ___ refuse.
(1) might
(2) ought
(3) mustn’t
(4) wouldn’t
✅ Correct Answer: (4) wouldn’t
Explanation:
This sentence is a conditional one, describing a hypothetical situation. “Wouldn’t” is the correct modal to express a likely refusal in a hypothetical past situation.
Q2.
She ___ sit for hours in her garden and knit.
(past habit)
(1) ought to
(2) would
(3) might
(4) shall
✅ Correct Answer: (2) would
Explanation:
“Would” is commonly used to describe past habitual actions when the context clearly refers to the past.
Q3.
It is very hot ___ the centre of the earth.
(1) upon
(2) at
(3) on
(4) in
✅ Correct Answer: (4) in
Explanation:
We use “in” with enclosed or defined spaces. “In the centre” is the correct prepositional phrase when referring to the earth’s interior.
Q4.
I bought three loaves, that ___ be enough.
(express deduction or conclusion)
(1) will
(2) may
(3) should
(4) can
✅ Correct Answer: (3) should
Explanation:
“Should” is used to express a logical conclusion or expectation. Since three loaves are quite a few, the speaker concludes that it “should be enough.”
Q5.
On the other side of the wood, there was a field that he ___ cross to reach his home.
(immediate obligation)
(1) should
(2) must
(3) might
(4) ought to
✅ Correct Answer: (2) must
Explanation:
“Must” conveys strong necessity or obligation, especially in a situational or urgent context, such as reaching home.
Q6.
He didn’t ___ be reminded about it.
(absence of necessity)
(1) want to
(2) need to
(3) ought to
(4) used to
✅ Correct Answer: (2) need to
Explanation:
“Didn’t need to” expresses absence of necessity. Other options either do not fit the structure or the meaning.
Q7.
I managed to find the street, but I ___ find her house.
(inability)
(1) hadn’t
(2) wasn’t
(3) couldn’t
(4) usen’t
✅ Correct Answer: (3) couldn’t
Explanation:
“Couldn’t” is the correct modal for expressing past inability.
Q8.
Did they comply ___ the rules?
(1) from
(2) by
(3) for
(4) with
✅ Correct Answer: (4) with
Explanation:
“Comply” always takes the preposition “with”: “comply with the rules.” The other options are incorrect collocations.
Q9.
___ advising her, he also helped her.
(1) Besides
(2) Beside
(3) Of
(4) Since
✅ Correct Answer: (1) Besides
Explanation:
“Besides” means in addition to, which fits this sentence. “Beside” means “next to” and doesn’t fit logically.
Q10.
He was happy, ___ to be all his university friends again.
(1) between
(2) besides
(3) among
(4) onto
✅ Correct Answer: (3) among
Explanation:
“Among” is used when referring to being in the company of more than two people, which suits “his university friends.”
Q11.
Are you any good ___ tennis?
(1) in
(2) at
(3) about
(4) with
✅ Correct Answer: (2) at
Explanation:
The correct collocation is “good at” something, e.g., “good at tennis,” “good at singing.”
Q12.
We saw an unknown object hover ___ us before it disappeared into the clouds.
(1) at
(2) over
(3) into
(4) by
✅ Correct Answer: (2) over
Explanation:
The correct preposition is “over” when something is above someone or something, often hovering or floating.
Q13.
You’ll have to work very hard today to ___ the time you wasted yesterday.
(1) make out
(2) make up for
(3) make for up
(4) make up to
✅ Correct Answer: (2) make up for
Explanation:
“To make up for” means to compensate for something lost or wasted.
Q14.
The joke caused no amusement.
(1) fell out
(2) fell back
(3) did not hold water
(4) fell flat
✅ Correct Answer: (4) fell flat
Explanation:
When a joke “falls flat,” it means it fails to amuse or make people laugh.
Q15.
The meaning of the idiom “Give yourself airs” is:
(1) Go out of doors
(2) Make a wrong choice
(3) Act pretentiously or snobbishly
(4) Make someone annoyed or angry
✅ Correct Answer: (3) Act pretentiously or snobbishly
Explanation:
“To give oneself airs” means to behave arrogantly or with a sense of superiority.
Q16.
Choose the correct meaning of the idiom “A golden calf”:
(1) The highest prize
(2) The perfect object of worship
(3) An unworthy object of worship
(4) A glitzy piece
✅ Correct Answer: (3) An unworthy object of worship
Explanation:
A “golden calf” refers to something idolized without worth, based on the Biblical story where people worshipped a golden idol.
Q17.
Choose the correct meaning of the phrasal verb
“get around”
:
(1) Recover
(2) Make progress
(3) Escape
(4) Persuade or coax
✅ Correct Answer: (4) Persuade or coax
Explanation:
To “get around someone” means to persuade them to do something, usually through charm or manipulation.
Q18.
Who, according to the passage, cannot have respect for himself?
(1) One who likes material things
(2) One who has a contempt for poetry
(3) One who is in love with oneself
(4) One who understands oneself
✅ Correct Answer: (2) One who has a contempt for poetry
Explanation:
The passage by Hazlitt clearly says: “He who has a contempt for poetry cannot have much respect for himself.”
Q19.
What gives birth to poetry?
(1) A respect for societal goals
(2) A love for oneself
(3) A sense of beauty, power, or harmony
(4) A love for facts of life
✅ Correct Answer: (3) A sense of beauty, power, or harmony
Explanation:
According to the passage: “Wherever there is a sense of beauty, or power, or harmony… there is poetry in its birth.”
Q20.
Synonym of the word
“Harmony”
is:
(1) Dissonance
(2) Peacefulness
(3) Disagreement
(4) Incongruity
✅ Correct Answer: (2) Peacefulness
Explanation:
Harmony refers to a state of agreement and balance — peacefulness is the closest in meaning.
Q21.
What kind of language is the language of poetry?
(1) Of far-fetched objects & subjects
(2) Of rules and regulations
(3) Of realities of life
(4) Of imagination and passion
✅ Correct Answer: (4) Of imagination and passion
Explanation:
The passage by Hazlitt describes poetry as the language of the imagination and the passions, reflecting emotional and artistic expression.
Q22.
When writing a précis, one should avoid which of these rules?
(1) Use one word for many by substitution
(2) Use shorter clause structures by ellipsis
(3) Leaving out every third word
(4) Deleting examples and repetitions
✅ Correct Answer: (3) Leaving out every third word
Explanation:
This option is nonsensical and not a valid strategy in précis writing. The others are useful techniques.
Q23.
Fill in the blank with the correct option:
Précis writing is an exercise in –
(1) expansion
(2) paragraph writing
(3) compression
(4) paraphrasing
✅ Correct Answer: (3) compression
Explanation:
Précis writing means summarizing a passage by compressing it into its essential ideas in fewer words.
Q24.
Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of précis writing?
(1) Inclusion of colloquial expressions and rhetorical flourishes
(2) Simple, direct language
(3) Coherence and logic
(4) Complete and self-contained sentences
✅ Correct Answer: (1) Inclusion of colloquial expressions and rhetorical flourishes
Explanation:
Précis writing avoids informal or decorative language. It should be simple, clear, and formal.
Q25.
While choosing a title for your précis, the best way is to –
- Think of some word or phrase that will sum up briefly the main subject.
- Look for a key sentence in the beginning or end.
- Make the title as informative as possible.
Choose the correct answer:
(1) 1 and 3
(2) 1, 2 and 3
(3) 1 and 2
(4) 2 and 3
✅ Correct Answer: (2) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
All three are effective strategies to choose a suitable, informative title for a précis.
Q26.
To achieve a personal tone in letter writing, one should:
(1) Write in natural, conversational style
(2) Avoid personal pronouns
(3) Be remote and aloof
(4) Avoid use of person’s name
✅ Correct Answer: (1) Write in natural, conversational style
Explanation:
A personal tone is best conveyed using a friendly, conversational style, and not by being distant.
Q27.
A good letter should not be:
(1) Clearly written
(2) Briefly stated
(3) Glaringly opinionated
(4) Courteously polite
✅ Correct Answer: (3) Glaringly opinionated
Explanation:
A letter should avoid strong bias or over-opinionation. Clarity, brevity, and politeness are preferred.
Q28.
The most usual subscription used in the letter of application for a post is:
(1) Your’s sincerely
(2) Yours faithfully
(3) Yours affectionately
(4) Your’s very sincerely
✅ Correct Answer: (2) Yours faithfully
Explanation:
When writing formal letters like job applications, “Yours faithfully” is the standard subscription.
Q29.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence for the form of a letter?
(1) The heading, address on the envelope, greeting, subscription, body
(2) Address on the envelope, heading, salutation, body, subscription
(3) Heading, salutation, body, subscription, address on the envelope
(4) Salutation, heading, envelope, subscription, body
✅ Correct Answer: (3) Heading, salutation, body, subscription, address on the envelope
Explanation:
This is the correct conventional format of a letter’s structure.
Q30.
The three ‘C’s in a good report do not include:
(1) Clarity
(2) Crudity
(3) Consistency
(4) Consequentiality
✅ Correct Answer: (2) Crudity
Explanation:
The three C’s are Clarity, Consistency, and Consequentiality. “Crudity” is inappropriate and not a desired quality.
Q31.
Which one of the following is generally not found in the format of a written report?
(1) Salutation or greeting
(2) Executive summary
(3) Introduction
(4) Body and conclusion
✅ Correct Answer: (1) Salutation or greeting**
Explanation:
A report is formal and factual, and unlike letters, it does not include a salutation or greeting.
Q32.
A report must always be –
- Informal in its tone, language and presentation.
- Formal in its tone, language and presentation.
- A formal presentation of available information.
Choose the correct answer:
(1) Only 1 is correct
(2) 2 and 3 are correct
(3) 1 and 3 are correct
(4) 1 and 2 are correct
✅ Correct Answer: (2) 2 and 3 are correct**
Explanation:
A report should be formal in style and tone. It must present factual information systematically.
Q33.
A systematic and well-organized formal presentation of facts and findings of an event that has already taken place is a:
(1) Circular
(2) Tender
(3) Letter
(4) Report
✅ Correct Answer: (4) Report**
Explanation:
A report presents details of an event or investigation in a structured, formal manner.
Q34.
“Who best bear his mild yoke, they serve Him best.”
What does “yoke” refer to in On His Blindness?
(1) The eternal punishment
(2) The eternal human predicament
(3) The talent wasted fondly
(4) A harness or responsibility
✅ Correct Answer: (4) A harness or responsibility**
Explanation:
“Yoke” here is a symbolic expression for the burden or responsibility assigned by God.
Q35.
In
On His Blindness
Milton reflects a complex mix of emotions. He moves from –
(1) Hope to frustration to grief
(2) Grief to frustration to resilience
(3) Hopelessness to hope to hopelessness
(4) Belief in God, questioning God to doubting God
✅ Correct Answer: (2) Grief to frustration to resilience**
Explanation:
Milton progresses from grief about his blindness, through frustration, to acceptance and resilience by trusting God’s will.
Q36.
Which of the following impossibilities is
not
mentioned in the first stanza of
Go and Catch a Falling Star
?
(1) Catch a falling star
(2) Hear mermaids singing
(3) Pilgrimage of ten thousand days and nights
(4) Finding the cause of the devil’s cleft foot
✅ Correct Answer: (3) Pilgrimage of ten thousand days and nights**
Explanation:
This appears in the final stanza, not the first. The other three are part of the first stanza’s list of impossible tasks.
Q37.
Which one is a
wrong
assessment of the given poems?
(1) Ode to the West Wind was written after the Peterloo Massacre
(2) Ode on a Grecian Urn was inspired by Keats’ visit to the British Museum
(3) Daffodils is a sonnet inspired by daffodils at Ullswater
(4) My Last Duchess preceded a poem detailing Duke and Duchess’s identities
✅ Correct Answer: (3) Daffodils is a sonnet inspired by daffodils at Ullswater**
Explanation:
Daffodils is not a sonnet. It’s a lyric poem in quatrains inspired by daffodils seen at Ullswater.
Q38.
Which of the following names/adjectives is
not
used for the West Wind by Shelley?
(1) Spirit fierce!
(2) Uncontrollable!
(3) Thou Breath of Winter
(4) Impetuous One
✅ Correct Answer: (3) Thou Breath of Winter**
Explanation:
Shelley calls the wind “Breath of Autumn’s being,” not “Thou Breath of Winter.” This phrase does not occur in the poem.
Q39.
What does “Sylvan” refer to in the line from
Ode on a Grecian Urn
:
“Sylvan historian, who canst thus express…”
(1) Divine
(2) Greek
(3) Scholar of sculptures
(4) Living or located in the forest
✅ Correct Answer: (4) Living or located in the forest**
Explanation:
“Sylvan” refers to forests or wooded settings. The urn tells a pastoral, nature-inspired tale.
Q40.
Browning’s
My Last Duchess
is an
ekphrastic poem
, i.e., a poem describing a work of art. Another example is:
(1) Wordsworth’s Daffodils
(2) Donne’s Go and Catch a Falling Star
(3) Keats’s Ode on a Grecian Urn
(4) Shelley’s Ode to the West Wind
✅ Correct Answer: (3) Keats’s Ode on a Grecian Urn**
Explanation:
Like My Last Duchess, Ode on a Grecian Urn is an ekphrastic poem that responds to visual art.
Q41.
The neighbours of the poet in
Night of the Scorpion
made various wishes for his mother. Which of the following was
not
wished by them?
(1) May the sins of previous birth be burnt away.
(2) May the suffering decrease the misfortune of the next birth.
(3) May the poison purify the flesh of desire.
(4) May the suffering spare the sum of her good deeds.
✅ Correct Answer: (4) May the suffering spare the sum of her good deeds.
Explanation:
This line does not appear in the poem. The neighbours suggest the suffering might burn sin, purify flesh, or decrease misfortune in the next birth.
Q42.
“There were green tattoos on their cheeks, _ in their hair.”
Choose the correct option based on Dance of the Eunuchs.
(1) Jasmine
(2) Clips
(3) Tulips
(4) Blossoms
✅ Correct Answer: (1) Jasmine
Explanation:
Kamala Das writes about eunuchs adorned with jasmine flowers, symbolic of their ornamental yet melancholic identity.
Q43.
In
Go and Catch a Falling Star
, the speaker commands his listener to perform a series of impossible tasks to illustrate:
(1) Women’s fidelity
(2) Women’s beauty
(3) Black magic
(4) Women’s infidelity
✅ Correct Answer: (4) Women’s infidelity
Explanation:
Donne’s speaker uses impossible commands to prove that a faithful woman is just as rare – if not nonexistent.
Q44.
In Shakespeare’s
Macbeth
, who among the following is
not
a Thane of Scotland?
(1) Macduff
(2) Lennox
(3) Seyton
(4) Angus
✅ Correct Answer: (3) Seyton
Explanation:
Seyton is Macbeth’s attendant, not a thane. Macduff, Lennox, and Angus are all Thanes.
Q45.
Who is Fleance in
Macbeth
?
(1) Name of Hecate
(2) Thane of Cawdor
(3) Banquo’s son
(4) Earl of Northumberland
✅ Correct Answer: (3) Banquo’s son
Explanation:
Fleance is Banquo’s son and heir to the prophecy that his line will become kings.
Q46.
Where does Macbeth fortify himself to fight against Malcolm in the last act?
(1) Cawdor
(2) Glamis
(3) The Wood of Birnam
(4) Dunsinane
✅ Correct Answer: (4) Dunsinane
Explanation:
Macbeth fortifies his castle at Dunsinane, where he awaits Malcolm’s army.
Q47.
The play
Macbeth
was written during the reign of:
(1) Queen Elizabeth
(2) Charles I
(3) James I
(4) Richard I
✅ Correct Answer: (3) James I
Explanation:
Shakespeare wrote Macbeth during James I’s reign, incorporating themes like kingship, treason, and witchcraft to appeal to him.
Q48.
In the Porter Scene (Act 2, Scene 3), who is admitted to Inverness Castle and why?
(1) Macduff and Lennox; to wake Duncan
(2) Lady Macbeth; to murder Duncan
(3) Macbeth; to announce his victory
(4) Donalbain and Malcolm; to greet their father
✅ Correct Answer: (1) Macduff and Lennox; to wake Duncan
Explanation:
Macduff and Lennox come to wake the king, only to find him murdered. This moment shifts the tragedy into full motion.
Q49.
Match the couples in
As You Like It
:
- i. Oliver
- ii. Orlando
- iii. Silvius
- iv. Touchstone
Options:
a. Celia
b. Rosalind
c. Audrey
d. Phoebe
✅ Correct Answer: (4) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c**
Explanation:
- Oliver ❤️ Celia
- Orlando ❤️ Rosalind
- Silvius ❤️ Phoebe
- Touchstone ❤️ Audrey
Q50.
Shakespeare portrays rustic characters in
As You Like It
. Pick the odd one out (not rustic):
(1) Audrey
(2) Touchstone
(3) William
(4) Corin
✅ Correct Answer: (2) Touchstone
Explanation:
Touchstone is a court jester, not a rustic. The others – Audrey, William, Corin – are shepherds or rural folk.
51. Who speaks the following lines to whom in Shakespeare’s As You Like It?
“O good old man how well in thee appears
The constant service of the antique world
When service sweat for duty, not for need
Thou art not for the fashion of these times”
Options:
(1) Jaques to Duke Senior
(2) Oliver to Adam
(3) Orlando to Adam
(4) Duke Frederick to Duke Ferdinand
Correct Answer: (3) Orlando to Adam
Explanation:
These lines are spoken by Orlando to Adam, the old servant who has remained loyal to Orlando. Orlando praises Adam’s selfless and loyal service, contrasting it with the self-serving behavior of people in contemporary society.
52. Who is Jaques de Boys in As You Like It?
Options:
(1) A Lord attending on Duke Senior
(2) The second son of Sir Rowland
(3) The Wrestler
(4) A Shepherd
Correct Answer: (2) The second son of Sir Rowland
Explanation:
Jaques de Boys is the second son of Sir Rowland de Boys and the brother of Oliver and Orlando. He appears at the end of the play to announce significant news, including Duke Frederick’s transformation.
53. In As You Like It, Phoebe’s remark “Whoever loved that loved not at first sight” harks back to:
Options:
(1) Marlowe’s Hero and Leander
(2) Shakespeare’s Much Ado About Nothing
(3) Bacon’s Of Love
(4) Spenser’s The Faerie Queene
Correct Answer: (1) Marlowe’s Hero and Leander
Explanation:
The line is a direct reference from Christopher Marlowe’s poem Hero and Leander. Phoebe uses this romantic idea to support her feelings in a dramatic and exaggerated manner.
**54. ‘Some books are to be tasted, others to be swallowed and some few to be chewed and digested’.
Here, ‘to be chewed and digested’ means:**
Options:
(1) It is enough to read reviews of books.
(2) To be perused lightly.
(3) To be read with less curiosity.
(4) To be read with attention and diligence.
Correct Answer: (4) To be read with attention and diligence.
Explanation:
This line from Bacon’s Of Studies explains that some books are so deep and rich in knowledge that they must be read carefully and thoughtfully, not superficially.
55. Bacon identifies three main purposes of studies. They are:
Options:
(1) Knowledge, understanding and education
(2) Delight, ornament and ability
(3) Exploration, description and explanation
(4) Prediction, diagnosis and delight
Correct Answer: (2) Delight, ornament and ability
Explanation:
According to Francis Bacon, studies serve for delight in privateness and retiring, ornament in discourse, and ability in judgment and business.
56. The phrase “brandished weapon of his art” in the essay The Praise of Chimney-Sweepers refers to –
Options:
(1) Sword
(2) Pen
(3) Brush
(4) Stick
Correct Answer: (3) Brush
Explanation:
In Charles Lamb’s essay, the brush is metaphorically referred to as the brandished weapon of the chimney sweepers as it was their primary tool of cleaning chimneys.
57. In The Praise of Chimney-Sweepers, Lamb compares little professional notes of small chimney sweepers to –
Options:
(1) A young sparrow
(2) A nightingale
(3) A parrot
(4) A young rose-breasted grosbeak
Correct Answer: (1) A young sparrow
Explanation:
Lamb affectionately describes the child chimney sweepers and compares their chirping voices and innocent enthusiasm to that of a young sparrow.
58. Who hosts an annual feast for the young chimney sweepers?
Options:
(1) Bigod
(2) Mr. Read
(3) Elia
(4) Jem White
Correct Answer: (4) Jem White
Explanation:
Jem White, a real-life friend of Charles Lamb, is mentioned in the essay as someone who organized feasts for chimney-sweepers, showcasing his benevolence and compassion.
59. The reason for Henchard’s immediate liking for Donald Farfrae is –
Options:
(1) Farfrae provides Henchard with political opportunities.
(2) Farfrae shares with Henchard a technique that makes ruined grain usable.
(3) Farfrae helps Henchard avoid a confrontation with Susan.
(4) Farfrae is a good drinking companion.
Correct Answer: (2) Farfrae shares with Henchard a technique that makes ruined grain usable.
Explanation:
In The Mayor of Casterbridge, Henchard is impressed by Farfrae’s knowledge of preserving grain using a scientific technique, leading to a quick bond and job offer.
60. Who is the biological father of Elizabeth in The Mayor of Casterbridge?
Options:
(1) Michael Henchard
(2) Joshua Jopp
(3) Richard Newson
(4) Donald Farfrae
Correct Answer: (3) Richard Newson
Explanation:
Though Henchard believed Elizabeth-Jane to be his daughter, it is later revealed that her biological father was Richard Newson, Susan’s second husband.
61. Henchard sells his wife to –
Options:
(1) a hay trusser
(2) the furmity seller
(3) a sailor
(4) a smoking gentleman
Correct Answer: (3) a sailor
Explanation:
In The Mayor of Casterbridge, Michael Henchard drunkenly auctions his wife, Susan, and daughter to a sailor named Richard Newson at a fair — a key event that drives the entire plot of the novel.
62. Which of the following are true with regard to The Mayor of Casterbridge?
A. Henchard’s real daughter was alive.
B. The novel is the story of a man of character.
C. Hardy prioritizes character over fate and incident.
D. The Skimmity ride killed Lucetta.
Options:
(1) A and C
(2) B and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) Only C
Correct Answer: (3) B, C and D
Explanation:
- Henchard’s real daughter died, and Elizabeth-Jane is actually Newson’s daughter.
- The subtitle of the novel is “A Story of a Man of Character”, pointing to Henchard.
- Hardy’s novel shows the interplay of character and fate, but emphasizes character.
- Lucetta dies from shock caused by the Skimmity Ride, a public humiliation.
63. Who revealed in the court that Henchard had sold his wife to a sailor?
Options:
(1) Newson
(2) Susan
(3) Joshua Jopp
(4) The furmity woman
Correct Answer: (4) The furmity woman
Explanation:
It is the furmity woman, present during the original sale of Henchard’s wife, who later testifies in court and exposes his past when she recognizes him as the mayor.
64. “Conquer taste and you will have conquered the self.” The above line characterizes Jagan’s valuing of –
Options:
(1) Materialism
(2) Frugality
(3) Restraint and balance
(4) Prudence
Correct Answer: (3) Restraint and balance
Explanation:
In The Vendor of Sweets, Jagan values self-control and restraint, drawing from Gandhian principles. The quote reflects his belief that conquering desires leads to mastery of the self.
65. Jagan uses the terms Amrita and Sanjeevini for –
Options:
(1) Margosa
(2) The Peepal tree
(3) The Banyan tree
(4) The Eucalyptus tree
Correct Answer: (1) Margosa
Explanation:
In the novel, Jagan refers to the margosa (neem) plant using the terms Amrita and Sanjeevini, symbolic of health and traditional Indian values.
66. Which among the following is NOT one of the themes in The Vendor of Sweets?
Options:
(1) Father–son relationship
(2) Clash between Indian and Western culture
(3) The Gandhian way of life
(4) Malgudi ethics and connections
Correct Answer: (4) Malgudi ethics and connections
Explanation:
While the novel is set in Malgudi, the theme is not centered on “Malgudi ethics”. The primary themes involve generational conflict, East vs. West cultural tensions, and Gandhian ideals.
67. What is the subject of the book that Jagan put out?
Options:
(1) Culinary Arts
(2) Family Relationships
(3) Mahatma Gandhi
(4) Naturopathy
Correct Answer: (4) Naturopathy
Explanation:
Jagan, a follower of Gandhian principles, writes a book on naturopathy, reflecting his belief in natural healing and traditional Indian medicine.
**68. “It makes coherent sense on the literal or primary level… and also communicates a second correlated order of signification.”
The above lines define –**
Options:
(1) The Sonnet
(2) The Ode
(3) The Allegory
(4) The Gothic
Correct Answer: (3) The Allegory
Explanation:
An allegory is a literary device that works on two levels: literal and symbolic. The quote refers to its dual-layered meaning.
69. Which of the following is a Gothic novel?
Options:
(1) The Castle of Otranto by Walpole
(2) The Pickwick Papers by Dickens
(3) The Mayor of Casterbridge by Hardy
(4) The Vendor of Sweets by Narayan
Correct Answer: (1) The Castle of Otranto by Walpole
Explanation:
Horace Walpole’s The Castle of Otranto (1764) is considered the first Gothic novel, marked by mystery, horror, and supernatural elements.
70. Dr. Johnson defines this literary form in his dictionary (1755) as a heroic narration not acted but rehearsed. What is he referring to?
Options:
(1) Ballad
(2) Ode
(3) Epic
(4) Allegory
Correct Answer: (3) Epic
Explanation:
Samuel Johnson defines an epic as a heroic narrative, traditionally in verse, that recounts the deeds of a heroic figure, like The Iliad or Paradise Lost.
71. Petrarch’s sonnets were first imitated in England, in form and subject matter – ‘a doting lover’s hopes & pains’ – by:
Options:
(1) Christopher Marlowe
(2) Sir Philip Sidney
(3) Sir Thomas Wyatt
(4) Edmund Spenser
Correct Answer: (3) Sir Thomas Wyatt
Explanation:
Sir Thomas Wyatt is credited with introducing the Petrarchan sonnet to England. He adapted Petrarch’s theme of unrequited love and the Italian sonnet form into English.
72. “It arises out of folk literature and is transmitted orally. It is a narrative species of folk songs.” This refers to:
Options:
(1) Sonnet
(2) Ode
(3) Ballad
(4) Gothic
Correct Answer: (3) Ballad
Explanation:
A ballad is a narrative poem, often with a folk origin, traditionally passed down orally, and frequently set to music.
73. In Greek and Roman times, the term used to refer to the subject matter of change and loss, especially in complaints about love is –
Options:
(1) Dirge
(2) Sonnet
(3) Elegy
(4) Ode
Correct Answer: (3) Elegy
Explanation:
An elegy is a poem of mournful reflection, often about loss and love, tracing its roots to classical antiquity.
74. Which of these are true?
A. The Pindaric ode is also known as the irregular ode.
B. Horation odes are shorter than Pindaric odes.
C. The Cowleyan ode is also called the regular ode.
D. Pindaric ode was introduced into England by Ben Jonson.
Options:
(1) A & D
(2) B & C
(3) A & C
(4) B & D
Correct Answer: (4) B & D
Explanation:
- Horation odes are shorter and more personal.
- Pindaric odes, which are complex and formal, were introduced by Ben Jonson.
- Cowleyan odes are actually irregular, not regular.
**75. “O heavy lightness! serious vanity! Mis-shapen chaos of well-seeming forms!”
Which figure of speech is used here?**
Options:
(1) Synecdoche
(2) Irony
(3) Oxymoron
(4) Metaphor
Correct Answer: (3) Oxymoron
Explanation:
Oxymoron is a figure of speech where contradictory terms appear in conjunction (e.g., heavy lightness, serious vanity).
76. The term “ten hands” for ten workers, or “a hundred sails” for ships is an example of –
Options:
(1) Oxymoron
(2) Paradox
(3) Synecdoche
(4) Rhetoric
Correct Answer: (3) Synecdoche
Explanation:
Synecdoche is a figure of speech in which a part is used to represent the whole (e.g., ten hands = ten workers).
**77. “The moan of doves in immemorial elms / And murmuring of innumerable bees.”
These lines are an example of –**
Options:
(1) Onomatopoeia
(2) Simile
(3) Metaphor
(4) Irony
Correct Answer: (1) Onomatopoeia
Explanation:
Onomatopoeia refers to words that imitate natural sounds (moan, murmur), enhancing the poem’s auditory imagery.
**78. “All the perfumes of Arabia will not sweeten this little hand.”
This is an example of –**
Options:
(1) Synecdoche
(2) Irony
(3) Onomatopoeia
(4) Hyperbole
Correct Answer: (4) Hyperbole
Explanation:
This line from Macbeth is a hyperbole (exaggeration) by Lady Macbeth, expressing guilt over murder that cannot be washed away.
79. Which of the following literary compositions is based on ‘Cosmic Irony’?
Options:
(1) Tess of the d’Urbervilles
(2) Pride and Prejudice
(3) The Rape of the Lock
(4) Moll Flanders
Correct Answer: (1) Tess of the d’Urbervilles
Explanation:
Cosmic irony involves the indifference or hostility of fate or the gods. In Tess, fate and circumstance seem to cruelly conspire against her.
**80. “The one red leaf, the last of its clan / That dances as often as dance it can.”
Which figure of speech is used here?**
Options:
(1) Personification
(2) Irony
(3) Metaphor
(4) Onomatopoeia
Correct Answer: (1) Personification
Explanation:
The leaf is personified as dancing, giving it human-like qualities, which is a hallmark of personification.
81. “A wave of enthusiasm” or “a storm of abuse” is an example of –
Options:
(1) Simile
(2) Metaphor
(3) Personification
(4) Metonymy
Correct Answer: (2) Metaphor
Explanation:
These are metaphors because abstract concepts like enthusiasm or abuse are described using physical imagery (wave, storm) without using “like” or “as”.
82. What is the correct phonetic transcription of ‘Tranquil’?
Options:
(1) /trankwil/
(2) /trankwil
(3) /trankwill
(4) /træŋkwɪl/ (Correct IPA)
Correct Answer: (4) /træŋkwɪl/
Explanation:
The correct IPA transcription for tranquil is /ˈtræŋkwɪl/. It contains the nasal /ŋ/ and the short vowel /ɪ/.
83. What is the correct phonetic transcription of ‘Judgement’?
Options:
(1) /dza:d3^meint/
(2) /dzadza:meint/
(3) /dgedgement/
(4) /ˈdʒʌdʒmənt/* (Correct IPA)
Correct Answer: (4) /ˈdʒʌdʒmənt/
Explanation:
The word judgement is correctly transcribed as /ˈdʒʌdʒmənt/ in IPA.
84. The phonetic transcription of the word ‘air’ is –
Options:
(1) /eə(r)/
(2) /ae(r)/
(3) /ɛə/
(4) /eə/
Correct Answer: (1) /eə(r)/
Explanation:
The diphthong /eə/ represents the vowel sound in air. In British English, it’s commonly noted as /eə(r)/.
85. Choose the correct transcription of the word ‘justice’:
Options:
(1) /dzasti:s/
(2) /3^strs/
(3) /djestis/
(4) /ˈdʒʌstɪs/* (Correct IPA)
Correct Answer: (4) /ˈdʒʌstɪs/
Explanation:
The correct IPA for justice is /ˈdʒʌstɪs/ — stress is on the first syllable, and the /ʌ/ vowel is used.
86. Mark the primary word stress in “Quintessence”:
Options:
(1) Quntessen’ce
(2) Quint’essence
(3) ‘Quintessence
(4) Quin’tessence
Correct Answer: (3) ’Quintessence
Explanation:
The primary stress falls on the first syllable: ’Quintessence (/ˈkwɪn.tɛs.əns/).
87. Choose the option with the correct primary stress on the word “examiner”:
Options:
(1) /igzæ’mine(r)/
(2) /‘igzæmine(r)/
(3) /igzæmi’ne(r)/
(4) /igˈzæmɪnə(r)/* (Correct IPA)
Correct Answer: (4) /ɪgˈzæmɪnə(r)/
Explanation:
Stress falls on the second syllable: ɪgˈzæmɪnə(r).
88. Which syllable is correctly stressed in the word “Commiserate”?
Options:
(1) Commise’rate
(2) Co’mmiserate
(3) Commi’serate
(4) ’Commiserate
Correct Answer: (3) Commi’serate
Explanation:
In commiserate, stress is on the third syllable: com-mi-’ser-ate — /kəˈmɪzəreɪt/.
89. By using a variety of different characters in different voices, Eliot in The Waste Land achieves –
Options:
(1) A kind of omniscient narration
(2) A kind of authorial intrusion
(3) A kind of impersonality
(4) A kind of personality
Correct Answer: (3) A kind of impersonality
Explanation:
T.S. Eliot believed in the concept of impersonality in poetry, where the poet’s personal feelings are removed, and multiple voices are used to reflect modern chaos.
90. The recurring phrase “Those are pearls that were his eyes” in The Waste Land is an allusion to which Shakespearean play?
Options:
(1) Hamlet
(2) The Tempest
(3) Romeo and Juliet
(4) Antony and Cleopatra
Correct Answer: (2) The Tempest
Explanation:
This phrase is borrowed from Ariel’s song in The Tempest (Act I, Scene 2), symbolizing transformation and death.
91. Who is the “Smyrna merchant” in the poem The Waste Land?
Options:
(1) Mr. Eugenides
(2) Wagner
(3) Stetson
(4) Cupidon
Correct Answer: (1) Mr. Eugenides
Explanation:
Mr. Eugenides, a one-eyed merchant from Smyrna, appears in Part II (A Game of Chess) of The Waste Land. He symbolizes materialism and spiritual barrenness.
92. The Birthday Party represents –
- The existential problems among post-war generations.
- The ontological dilemma that leads to fear and distress.
- The impact of the Industrial Revolution.
Correct Answer: (1) 1 and 2
Explanation:
Harold Pinter’s The Birthday Party is often interpreted as a comedy of menace and reflects existential and ontological anxieties, not the Industrial Revolution.
93. The Birthday Party by Pinter is a –
Options:
(1) Comedy of menace
(2) Comedy of manners
(3) Romantic comedy
(4) Sentimental comedy
Correct Answer: (1) Comedy of menace
Explanation:
Harold Pinter’s play is a comedy of menace, combining comic elements with an underlying threat or fear.
94. What game do the characters play in Act I of The Birthday Party?
Options:
(1) Musical chair
(2) Hide and seek
(3) Housie
(4) Blind man’s buff
Correct Answer: (4) Blind man’s buff
Explanation:
In Act I, Blind Man’s Buff is played, which adds to the surreal and sinister tone of the play.
95. Which of the following are true with regard to Cry, the Peacock?
A. The entire novel is narrated in third person.
B. Maya is obsessed with the astrologer’s prediction.
C. Maya’s pet dog’s name is not known.
D. The intro and conclusion are in third person.
Correct Answer: (1) B and D are true.
Explanation:
The novel is mainly first-person narration, but the intro and conclusion are in third person. Maya is obsessed with the astrologer’s prophecy.
96. Cry, the Peacock opens with –
Options:
(1) Maya thinking of Albino’s astrologer
(2) Maya thinking of childhood
(3) Death of Maya’s pet dog
(4) Maya reflecting on Gautama
Correct Answer: (3) The death of Maya’s pet dog
Explanation:
The novel begins with Maya mourning the death of her dog, symbolizing emotional loss and setting the psychological tone.
97. Which statements are correct about Creole languages?
- Creoles are vernaculars.
- They arise from unintelligible languages.
- They arise from intelligible languages.
Correct Answer: (1) 1 and 2
Explanation:
Creole languages arise from pidgins, formed between mutually unintelligible groups, and develop into stable native languages.
98. Which statement about Creole language is true?
Options:
(1) Always endangered
(2) Only in tropical regions
(3) Have native speakers and are stable
(4) No writing system
Correct Answer: (3) Have native speakers and are stable
Explanation:
Creoles are fully developed, native languages with their own grammar and speakers, though some lack standardized orthography.
99. “The price of gold has touched ___ new high.”
Options:
(1) a
(2) an
(3) the
(4) zero article
Correct Answer: (1) a
Explanation:
“A new high” is indefinite and introducing a new concept. So, “a” is the correct article.
100. “His ideas are difficult, but ___ people understand them.”
Options:
(1) the few
(2) a few
(3) much
(4) not any
Correct Answer: (2) a few
Explanation:
“A few” means some (positive tone). “The few” is restrictive. So, “a few” people understand is correct.
101. She asked, “Some more soup?” He said, “Just — , please.”
(1) little
(2) some
(3) a little
(4) less
Correct Answer: (3) a little
Explanation: “A little” is used for a small quantity of uncountable nouns like soup. “Just a little” is polite and appropriate here.
102. There is ___ point in doing ___ more work now.
(1) a; the
(2) no; many
(3) little; few
(4) little; any
Correct Answer: (4) little; any
Explanation: “There is little point” (means hardly any purpose) and “any more work” is correct when talking negatively or doubtfully.
103. ___ U.S. diplomat showed me great courtesy in the U.S. embassy.
(1) A
(2) An
(3) The
(4) Zero article
Correct Answer: (1) A
Explanation: “A U.S. diplomat” is correct — “U” is pronounced “you”, a consonant sound.
104. We are having ___ terrible rains this year.
(1) a
(2) an
(3) the
(4) zero article
Correct Answer: (4) zero article
Explanation: “Rains” is plural and general here; hence, no article is needed.
105. I’d rather she ___ me before borrowing my car.
(1) must ask
(2) had asked
(3) could have asked
(4) will be asking
Correct Answer: (2) had asked
Explanation: After “I’d rather,” we use past perfect for unreal past preferences.
106. If I ___ a sculptor, I ___ sculpture for you.
(1) was, made
(2) were, will make
(3) were, would make
(4) were, would made
Correct Answer: (3) were, would make
Explanation: Hypothetical conditional in present uses were + would + base verb.
107. Susan ___ him three daughters.
(1) has born
(2) has borne
(3) has borned
(4) have born
Correct Answer: (2) has borne
Explanation: “Has borne” is the correct past participle of “bear” in the sense of giving birth.
108. He ___ asleep while he ___ .
(Fall, study)
(1) fall, was studying
(2) had fallen, studied
(3) fell, was studying
(4) has fallen, was studying
Correct Answer: (3) fell, was studying
Explanation: Past simple (“fell”) and past continuous (“was studying”) is the correct tense combination for simultaneous actions.
109. You ___ crashed if you’d looked where you were going.
(1) didn’t have
(2) hadn’t been
(3) couldn’t have been
(4) wouldn’t have
Correct Answer: (4) wouldn’t have
Explanation: “You wouldn’t have crashed” fits a third conditional structure (hypothetical past).
110. This paper ___ twice weekly.
(1) is appearing
(2) appears
(3) was appearing
(4) appearing
Correct Answer: (2) appears
Explanation: Habitual present actions are expressed in simple present tense — “appears.”
**111. Choose the grammatically correct active transformation of the following:
“It was felt that he was the right man for the job.”**
(1) The job requires a man like him.
(2) I feel that he is the right man for the job.
(3) We/they felt that he was the right man for the job.
(4) That he was the right man for the job is felt around.
Correct Answer: (3) We/they felt that he was the right man for the job.
Explanation: Passive: It was felt… → Active: We/they felt… is the most natural and grammatically sound transformation.
112. The whole nation believed that Vinesh would win. (Change into passive voice)
(1) It was believed that Vinesh would win.
(2) It was believed that Vinesh will win.
(3) It was believed that Vinesh would have win.
(4) It was believed that Vinesh would have won.
Correct Answer: (1) It was believed that Vinesh would win.
Explanation: Correct passive voice structure. The tense “would win” remains unchanged.
**113. Change the following direct speech into indirect speech:
He said to her, “Will you be there tomorrow?”**
(1) He asked her if she would be there the next day.
(2) He asked her if you would be there the next day.
(3) He asked to her if she would be there the next day.
(4) He asked her if she would be there tomorrow.
Correct Answer: (1) He asked her if she would be there the next day.
Explanation: Proper conversion with change in pronoun and adverb of time (tomorrow → the next day).
114. He said, “It is time I went to bed.” (Indirect)
(1) He said that it was time I went to bed.
(2) He said that it had been time he went to bed.
(3) He said that it was time he had gone to bed.
(4) He said that it was time he went to bed.
Correct Answer: (4) He said that it was time he went to bed.
Explanation: The verb “went” is in the subjunctive mood, expressing necessity or obligation.
115. He said, “If I had gone to the circus, I would have seen the clown.” (Indirect)
(1) He said that if I had gone to the circus I would have seen the clown.
(2) He said that if he had gone to the circus he would have seen the clown.
(3) He said that if he would have gone to the circus he had seen the clown.
(4) He said that if he would have gone to the circus he would have seen the clown.
Correct Answer: (2) He said that if he had gone to the circus he would have seen the clown.
Explanation: Correct form for third conditional in reported speech.
116. Which of the following sentences uses a double negative correctly?
(1) I don’t know nothing about it.
(2) He was not an infrequent visitor.
(3) She doesn’t want to go nowhere for the vacations.
(4) She hasn’t done nothing for the upcoming exams.
Correct Answer: (2) He was not an infrequent visitor.
Explanation: “Not an infrequent” is a litotes (double negative for emphasis) and is grammatically acceptable.
**117. Identify the correct affirmative form of the sentence:
Nobody was absent.**
(1) Everyone was absent.
(2) Everybody had been present.
(3) Everybody was present.
(4) Everybody wasn’t absent.
Correct Answer: (3) Everybody was present.
Explanation: Logical affirmative equivalent of “Nobody was absent” is “Everybody was present.”
**118. Change to complex sentence:
He has no boots to wear.**
(1) He has no boots who he can wear.
(2) He has no boots which he can wear.
(3) He cannot wear because he has no boots.
(4) He has no boots so he cannot wear.
Correct Answer: (2) He has no boots which he can wear.
Explanation: “To wear” (infinitive) becomes “which he can wear” in complex form.
**119. Convert the following simple sentence to compound:
He must work very hard to make up for the lost time.**
(1) The time which he has lost can be made up by hard work.
(2) He must work very hard but make up for the lost time.
(3) He must work very hard and make up for the lost time.
(4) He must work very hard or make up for the lost time.
Correct Answer: (3) He must work very hard and make up for the lost time.
Explanation: Simple → Compound using coordinating conjunction “and”.
**120. Choose the correct form of the simple sentence:
He sold the horse which belonged to his brother.**
(1) He sold his brother’s horse.
(2) He sold the horse and it was his brother’s.
(3) His brother had a horse that he sold.
(4) The horse that he sold was of his brother.
Correct Answer: (1) He sold his brother’s horse.
Explanation: This is the most concise and accurate transformation to a simple sentence.
121. According to Piaget, during which stage do children develop the ability to perform operations on abstract concepts?
(1) Sensorimotor
(2) Preoperational
(3) Concrete operational
(4) Formal operational
✅ Correct Answer: (4) Formal operational
Explanation: In Piaget’s theory, the formal operational stage (12+ years) involves abstract, logical, and hypothetical thinking.
122. Three significant laws of learning i.e., law of exercise, law of readiness and law of effect were given by:
(1) Ivan Pavlov
(2) B.F. Skinner
(3) E.L. Thorndike
(4) E.C. Tolman
✅ Correct Answer: (3) E.L. Thorndike
Explanation: Thorndike proposed these three laws of learning based on his experiments with cats in puzzle boxes.
123. Match List-I with List-II
List-I | List-II
A. Piaget → (iii) Schema
B. Bruner → (iv) Discovery learning
C. Pavlov → (i) Conditioning
D. Thorndike → (ii) Trial and Error
✅ Correct Answer: (4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
Explanation: Each psychologist is correctly matched with their contribution to learning theory.
124. For effective learning, organization of the matter into a whole is important. This is the viewpoint of:
(1) Bandura
(2) Tolman
(3) Kohler
(4) Bruner
✅ Correct Answer: (3) Kohler
Explanation: Kohler, a Gestalt psychologist, emphasized perceiving the whole over parts for meaningful learning.
125. Constructivist theories of learning suggest that:
(1) Knowledge is passively absorbed by learners.
(2) Learners construct knowledge based on their experience.
(3) Teaching should focus on rote memorization.
(4) Assessment should only test factual knowledge.
✅ Correct Answer: (2) Learners construct knowledge based on their experience.
Explanation: Constructivism emphasizes active construction of knowledge through real-world experiences.
126. A mentally healthy person will be:
(1) Emotionally balanced but socially inadjustable.
(2) Socially adjustable and daydreamer.
(3) Self-confident and pessimist.
(4) Emotionally balanced and socially adjustable.
✅ Correct Answer: (4) Emotionally balanced and socially adjustable.
Explanation: Mental health is indicated by emotional regulation and positive social relationships.
127. A child who has been punished… may beat a street dog. This is an example of:
(1) Sublimation
(2) Displacement
(3) Compensation
(4) Repression
✅ Correct Answer: (2) Displacement
Explanation: Displacement involves transferring negative emotions from the original source to a safer substitute.
128. The concept of emotional intelligence was first coined by:
(1) John Mayer and Peter Salovey
(2) Daniel Goleman
(3) Cooper & Swaf
(4) Robert Plutchik and K.T. Strongman
✅ Correct Answer: (1) John Mayer and Peter Salovey
Explanation: Mayer and Salovey introduced the term “Emotional Intelligence” in 1990. Goleman later popularized it.
129. A highly emotionally intelligent student will have good relationships with:
(1) Only A
(2) Only C
(3) A and C
(4) A, B and C
✅ Correct Answer: (4) A, B and C
Explanation: Emotional intelligence improves relationships with family, teachers, and peers.
130. Communication is a process of sharing:
A. Ideas and sentiments
B. Sentiments and goods
C. Feelings and opinion
D. Power and thoughts
(1) A and B
(2) A and C
(3) B and D
(4) C and D
✅ Correct Answer: (2) A and C
Explanation: Communication involves expressing ideas, sentiments, feelings, and opinions, not material goods or power.
131. Focussed listening skills include these stages:
A. Concentrating
B. Processing
C. Hearing
D. Evaluating
Correct sequence:
(1) C, B, D
(2) C, A, D
(3) A, C, B
(4) C, D, B
✅ Correct Answer: (1) C, B, D
Explanation:
Effective listening involves Hearing the message, Processing (interpreting), and Evaluating it for understanding and response.
132. Concept Attainment Teaching model follows three main phases:
A. Testing Attainment of the Concept
B. Presentation of Data and Identification of Concept
C. Analysis of Thinking Strategies
Select the correct sequence:
(1) B, A, C
(2) A, B, C
(3) B, C, A
(4) C, A, B
✅ Correct Answer: (1) B, A, C
Explanation:
The proper sequence:
Presentation of data, then Testing, followed by Analysis of how students thought.
133. Advance Organizer Model was given by:
(1) Atkinson & Shiffrin
(2) Bruner
(3) Austin
(4) David Ausubel
✅ Correct Answer: (4) David Ausubel
Explanation:
Ausubel emphasized the use of advance organizers to help students relate new info to prior knowledge.
134. Imagination power and composition skill of students can be developed by:
(1) Showing a stanza of poem and reading it
(2) Using set of pictures and asking them to speak
(3) Writing difficult word meanings
(4) Using jumbled words and correcting sentences
✅ Correct Answer: (2) Using set of pictures and ask them to speak anything about it
Explanation:
Speaking on pictures encourages imagination and free composition.
135. While preparing teaching-learning material, a teacher must consider its:
A. Usefulness
B. Simplicity and cost
C. Accuracy
D. Mental level of students
(1) A, C, D
(2) B, C, D
(3) A, B, C
(4) A, B, C, D
✅ Correct Answer: (4) A, B, C, D
Explanation:
All four factors are essential in effective TLM design: relevance, affordability, correctness, and learner suitability.
136. Cooperative learning technique ‘Jigsaw’ was developed by:
(1) Elliot Aronson
(2) Kurt Lewin
(3) Albert Bandura
(4) Erik Erikson
✅ Correct Answer: (1) Elliot Aronson
Explanation:
Elliot Aronson developed the Jigsaw method to promote cooperation among diverse students.
137. Which of the following is a key characteristic of cooperative learning?
(1) Students work independently
(2) Students work together to achieve a common goal
(3) Teachers provide all the answers
(4) No need for group roles
✅ Correct Answer: (2) Students work together to achieve a common goal
Explanation:
Collaboration and shared responsibility are core to cooperative learning.
138. Information and Communication Technology (ICT) supports:
(1) Teacher-centred learning
(2) Self-directed learning
(3) Autocratic learning
(4) Rote learning
✅ Correct Answer: (2) Self-directed learning
Explanation:
ICT empowers learners to explore, assess, and build knowledge independently.
139. Which approach is highlighted as an ineffective way of computer-based learning?
(1) Equipment-driven programmes without systemic support
(2) Interactive learner-centric programmes
(3) Community-driven education initiatives
(4) Teacher-student collaboration
✅ Correct Answer: (1) Equipment-driven programmes without systemic support
Explanation:
Tech tools alone, without pedagogy or support, are ineffective.
140. LCD stands for:
(1) Liquid Crystal Display
(2) Light Clean Display
(3) Light Crystal Diode
(4) Logical Crystal Display
✅ Correct Answer: (1) Liquid Crystal Display
Explanation:
LCD = Liquid Crystal Display, a flat-panel display technology used in screens.
141. System approach focuses on:
A. Learner and teacher only
B. Content only
C. Instructional strategies and class environment
D. Evaluation techniques
✅ Correct Answer: (4) A, B, C and D
Explanation:
The system approach considers all components of the teaching-learning process—learners, teachers, content, strategies, environment, and evaluation—as interconnected parts of a system.
142. Which one of the following statements is incorrect in the context of system approach?
(1) The system approach takes education as a system.
(2) The system approach considers the system of education as a whole.
(3) The system approach considers the system of education as a part.
(4) In system approach, a teacher has to compare different roles played by man and machine.
✅ Correct Answer: (3) The system approach considers the system of education as a part.
Explanation:
This statement is incorrect because the system approach treats education as a complete system, not just a part of it.
143. Which one of the following is NOT a paradigm for Computer Assisted Learning?
(1) Instructional Paradigm
(2) Instrumental Paradigm
(3) Revelatory Paradigm
(4) Emancipator Paradigm
✅ Correct Answer: (2) Instrumental Paradigm
Explanation:
Instructional, Revelatory, and Emancipator paradigms are recognized in computer-based education. Instrumental Paradigm is not one.
144. Through Computer Aided Instruction, students get:
(1) Personalized feedback
(2) Prompt correct answer
(3) Immediate feedback
(4) All of these
✅ Correct Answer: (4) All of these
Explanation:
CAI provides personalized learning, immediate response, and custom feedback, enhancing learning effectiveness.
145. “Educational Psychology describes and explains the learning experiences of the individual from birth through old age.” Defined by:
(1) Skinner
(2) J.A. Stephen
(3) Crow & Crow
(4) Kolensik
✅ Correct Answer: (3) Crow & Crow
Explanation:
Crow & Crow’s definition is widely accepted in educational psychology as comprehensive across the human lifespan.
146. Educational Psychology deals with:
A. Learner, learning process, evaluation of learning performance
B. Learner, learning process, learning situation
C. Problem of behaviour, problem of learning, problem of individual differences
✅ Correct Answer: (1) A, B and C
Explanation:
Educational psychology is holistic, addressing learning, teaching, behavior, and individual differences.
147. The study of educational psychology helps:
(1) Teacher and learner
(2) Guardians only
(3) Manager only
(4) Principal only
✅ Correct Answer: (1) Teacher and learner
Explanation:
Educational psychology informs both teachers (instruction) and learners (development and performance).
148. Rapid increase in the weight and height of the child occurs between the period of:
(1) 10–12 years
(2) 12–14 years
(3) 14–16 years
(4) 16–18 years
✅ Correct Answer: (3) 14–16 years
Explanation:
Adolescence (14–16 years) is marked by a growth spurt in both height and weight due to puberty.
149. According to Erikson’s psychosocial development theory, a major event during adolescence is:
(1) Independence
(2) Peer relationships
(3) Love relationships
(4) Acceptance of one’s life
✅ Correct Answer: (2) Peer relationships
Explanation:
In Erikson’s stage of Identity vs. Role Confusion, peer relationships play a crucial role in shaping adolescent identity.
150. Kohlberg has divided moral development into:
(1) 4 levels
(2) 6 levels
(3) 5 levels
(4) 3 levels
✅ Correct Answer: (4) 3 levels
Explanation:
Lawrence Kohlberg proposed 3 levels of moral development:
- Pre-conventional
- Conventional
- Post-conventional
Each level includes 2 stages, totaling 6 stages.