Q1.
To weather the storm means –
(1) to withstand heavy rains
(2) to survive a crisis ✅
(3) to create a crisis
(4) to fall a prey
💡 Explanation: The idiom “to weather the storm” means to endure or get through a difficult situation, like surviving a crisis.
Q2.
To rest on one’s laurels means –
(1) to depend on one’s destiny
(2) to become a restless person
(3) to retire from active life ✅
(4) to crave for undue popularity
💡 Explanation: This idiom means to stop making effort after past success; to become complacent.
Q3.
To come across means –
(1) to challenge someone
(2) to pass a bridge
(3) to meet with ✅
(4) to appear out of the blue
💡 Explanation: “To come across” something or someone means to meet or find by chance.
Q4.
I am done for means –
(1) ruined ✅
(2) successful
(3) happy
(4) very excited
💡 Explanation: The expression means someone is finished or defeated, especially in a difficult situation.
Q5.
Writing novels is my bread and butter. The underlined phrase means –
(1) livelihood ✅
(2) passion
(3) first love
(4) hobby
💡 Explanation: “Bread and butter” refers to someone’s source of income or main livelihood.
Q6.
Which among the following is not a reading technique?
(1) Skimming
(2) Brimming ✅
(3) Scanning
(4) Understanding
💡 Explanation: “Brimming” is not a reading technique; the others are all techniques for reading comprehension.
Q7.
According to the author, etiquette is –
(1) a mysterious set of complicated rules
(2) rigid rules and conventions
(3) consideration for the feelings of others ✅
(4) strict following of customs
💡 Explanation: The passage defines etiquette as thoughtfulness and kindness, not rules.
Q8.
The most important thing in good manners is –
(1) wearing expensive dresses
(2) speaking fluent English
(3) going to clubs and eating out
(4) showing thoughtfulness in small matters ✅
💡 Explanation: The passage emphasizes small acts of kindness and thoughtfulness as true manners.
Q9.
The word ‘refraining’ means –
(1) doing whatever you like
(2) stopping yourself from doing something ✅
(3) laughing whole-heartedly
(4) ridiculing others
💡 Explanation: “Refraining” means self-restraint or holding oneself back from doing something.
Q10.
The word ‘mysterious’ means –
(1) strange ✅
(2) familiar
(3) unchangeable
(4) lax
💡 Explanation: “Mysterious” describes something strange, puzzling or hard to understand.
Q11.
A well-bred person –
(1) boasts of his high social class
(2) says and does the kindest things ✅
(3) follows strict code of conduct
(4) considers little things insignificant
💡 Explanation: According to the passage, a well-bred person is thoughtful, kind, and respectful, especially in small everyday matters.
Q12.
Which one of the following features is true of a good precis?
(1) It includes illustrations and minor details
(2) It paraphrases the original passage
(3) It copies sentences from the passage
(4) It expresses all the essential ideas briefly in the writer’s own words ✅
💡 Explanation: A good precis summarizes only the key points using the writer’s own words, without unnecessary detail.
Q13.
Precis writing is an exercise in –
(1) transformation
(2) substitution
(3) compression ✅
(4) conjunction
💡 Explanation: Precis writing involves compressing a long passage into a shorter version while retaining all essential information.
Q14.
Which among the following is not a part of a precis?
(1) Logical ordering of facts
(2) Subjective interpretation ✅
(3) Cohesive rendering
(4) Coherence of thoughts
💡 Explanation: A precis must be objective. Subjective interpretation (personal opinion) is not allowed.
Q15.
The purpose of writing a precis is –
(1) to cover every detail of the original
(2) to prepare notes
(3) to inform the reader of the content in a concise form ✅
(4) to understand summarizing
💡 Explanation: A precis provides a clear and brief summary of the original text, mainly to inform the reader.
Q16.
Which is nearest in meaning to the technique of writing a precis?
(1) Abstraction
(2) Notification
(3) Summarizing ✅
(4) Classifying
💡 Explanation: Precis writing is closely related to summarizing, as both aim to present a shortened version of a longer passage.
Q17.
Which among the following is not a part of a letter format?
(1) Salutation
(2) Complimentary close
(3) The main body
(4) Filtration ✅
💡 Explanation: “Filtration” is not related to letter writing. Salutation, body, and closing are standard parts.
Q18.
Which of the following is correct?
(1) Yours’ sincerely
(2) Yours Sincerely
(3) Your’s Sincerely
(4) You’rs Sincerly
✅ Answer not provided (marked with asterisk in key)
💡 Correct Answer: (2) Yours sincerely
Explanation: In formal letters, the correct closing is “Yours sincerely” — no apostrophe.
Q19.
Which is not a characteristic of a business letter?
(1) Deals with commercial activities
(2) Uses commercial/technical vocabulary
(3) Informal addressor-addressee relationship ✅
(4) It is impartial and objective
💡 Explanation: Business letters are formal, so the relationship is formal and professional, not informal.
Q20.
The correct definition of a report is –
(1) a note recording something for future use
(2) a news announcement
(3) a large write-up for outdoor publicity
(4) an account or statement that describes an event, situation, or occurrence ✅
💡 Explanation: A report is a structured document that presents factual information about a situation, event, or study.
Q21.
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of reports?
(1) Factual details
(2) Grammatical accuracy
(3) Poetic embellishment ✅
(4) Clarity and brevity
💡 Explanation: Reports are expected to be clear, concise, and factual, not poetic or flowery in language. “Poetic embellishment” is inappropriate for reports.
Q22.
Which of the following does not describe a report?
(1) An exposition
(2) A delineation
(3) A description
(4) An indetermination ✅
💡 Explanation: Reports are written with certainty and clarity, not with “indetermination,” which means vagueness or uncertainty.
Q23.
Which one of the following is not true about writing an abstract of a report?
(1) It summarizes the main contents of the report
(2) It includes a short statement of the methods used
(3) It mentions the conclusions reached
(4) It is written before the preparation of the report ✅
💡 Explanation: An abstract is written after the report is completed, as it summarizes its contents. So (4) is incorrect.
Q24.
How, according to Milton in On His Blindness, does one best serve God?
(1) By returning to chide
(2) By submitting to His will quietly ✅
(3) By exacting day-labour
(4) By hiding one’s innate talent
💡 Explanation: Milton writes that those who patiently bear their condition also serve God, not just those who actively work.
Q25.
The figure of speech in “But Patience, to prevent that murmur, soon replies…” is –
(1) Simile
(2) Metaphor
(3) Allegory
(4) Personification ✅
💡 Explanation: “Patience” is given human qualities (it “replies”), so this is personification.
Q26.
“Strange sights”, “invisible to see” in Donne’s Go and Catch a Falling Star is an example of –
(1) Onomatopoeia
(2) Euphemism
(3) Paradox ✅
(4) Foreshadowing
💡 Explanation: “Invisible to see” is a paradox — a seemingly self-contradictory idea that reveals a deeper truth.
Q27.
The last line of Donne’s Go and Catch a Falling Star is –
(1) Lives a woman true and fair
(2) Such a pilgrimage were sweet
(3) False, ere I come, to two, or three ✅
(4) Serves to advance an honest mind
💡 Explanation: The poem ends cynically, stating that even a supposedly faithful woman would be false to two or three before the speaker reaches her.
Q28.
The tone of Donne’s Go and Catch a Falling Star is –
(1) Religious
(2) Satirical – cynical ✅
(3) Gloomy
(4) Mystical
💡 Explanation: The poem sarcastically critiques the impossibility of finding a faithful woman, reflecting a cynical tone.
Q29.
Which two words rhyme in the last two lines of the first stanza of Daffodils?
(1) Trees and breeze ✅
(2) Fluttering and dancing
(3) Eye and lie
(4) Glance and dance
💡 Explanation: In the first stanza of Wordsworth’s poem, trees rhymes with breeze — both describing the scene of daffodils.
Q30.
Wordsworth describes the daffodils as “a host”. Here “host” means –
(1) Someone who entertains guests
(2) An organism that harbors another
(3) A whole army of flowers ✅
(4) An unruly crowd of passersby
💡 Explanation: “A host” here metaphorically means a large group, like an army of daffodils dancing in the breeze.
Q31.
The figure of speech in the line “They stretched in never-ending line” from the poem Daffodils is –
Options:
(1) Hyperbole ✅
(2) Metaphor
(3) Alliteration
(4) Climax
💡 Explanation: The phrase “never-ending line” is an exaggeration to emphasize the vastness of the daffodils, making it a hyperbole.
Q32.
Spring’s rejuvenating power is first mentioned in Ode to the West Wind through the image of –
Options:
(1) Vaulted vast sepulchre
(2) Lull’d coil of crystalline streams
(3) Clarion call of the azure sister that fills the hills and plains ✅
(4) Whirls of crystalline coils
💡 Explanation: The “azure sister of the Spring”, i.e., the West Wind, blows its clarion (trumpet) to awaken the world — symbolizing renewal.
Q33.
The “autumnal tone” that Shelley wishes to replicate in his verse is –
Options:
(1) Fierce and competitive
(2) Grown gray with fear
(3) Sweet though in sadness ✅
(4) Sepulchral and seductive
💡 Explanation: Shelley sees autumn as a metaphor for sad beauty. The mood is melancholic yet inspiring.
Q34.
The wild spirit in Ode to the West Wind is called destroyer and preserver because –
Options:
(1) It causes large-scale destruction
(2) It preserves everything
(3) It makes leaves fall and keeps seeds safe to sprout later ✅
(4) It is wild, swift, and dangerous
💡 Explanation: The West Wind is both destructive (blows dead leaves) and preservative (buries seeds to bloom in spring).
Q35.
Which image from Ode on a Grecian Urn is not “sylvan”?
Options:
(1) Fair youth beneath the trees
(2) Deities in Arcady
(3) The pastoral pipers
(4) The unravished bride of solitude ✅
💡 Explanation: “Sylvan” refers to woods/forests. The “unravish’d bride” symbolizes the urn, not a forest image.
Q36.
Keats says “unheard melodies are sweeter” because –
Options:
(1) He has tasted them before
(2) They cannot be shared
(3) They are oblivious to all
(4) They strike the cords of the spirit ✅
💡 Explanation: Unheard melodies appeal to the imagination, not senses — they are spiritually more profound.
Q37.
The bold lover in Ode on a Grecian Urn need not grieve because –
Options:
(1) He will sometime kiss his beloved
(2) He will enjoy bliss later
(3) His love and her beauty are eternal ✅
(4) He will never grow old to repent
💡 Explanation: On the urn, both lover and beloved are frozen in time, preserving youth and beauty forever.
Q38.
Browning’s My Last Duchess is written in –
Options:
(1) 28 rhyming couplets of iambic pentameter ✅
(2) 14 rhyming quatrains of iambic pentameter
(3) 4 sonnets joined as a monologue
(4) A long soliloquy of 56 lines
💡 Explanation: The poem is a dramatic monologue in iambic pentameter with rhyming couplets (heroic couplets).
Q39.
Which is not mentioned by Browning for “calling up the spot of joy” on the Duchess’ face?
Options:
(1) A bough of cherries
(2) The white mule
(3) Neptune taming a sea-horse ✅
(4) Her husband’s presence
💡 Explanation: “Neptune taming a sea-horse” is referenced later and relates to art, not the cause of her blush.
Q40.
The portrait of the Last Duchess is a work of art created by –
Options:
(1) Claus of Innsbruck
(2) Fra Pandolf ✅
(3) An officious person
(4) Duke of Ferrara
💡 Explanation: The Duke says the painting was made by Fra Pandolf, a fictional artist.
Q41.
In Night of the Scorpion, Ezekiel says the scorpion first crawled –
Options:
(1) into his mother’s mattress
(2) beneath a sack of rice ✅
(3) up his mother’s leg
(4) into the room’s thatch
💡 Explanation: The poem begins with “The peasants came like swarms of flies and buzzed the name of God… the scorpion had crawled beneath a sack of rice.”
Q42.
The villagers believed the sting of the scorpion –
Options:
(1) was due to the mother’s evil nature
(2) was a result of the father’s skepticism
(3) was the creature’s revenge
(4) would purify the mother’s flesh ✅
💡 Explanation: The villagers believed that pain would burn away sins of the flesh—a superstitious view.
Q43.
The father’s last resort to counteract the poison was –
Options:
(1) To curse and chide
(2) To pray to diabolical spirits
(3) To pour paraffin and put a match to the toe ✅
(4) To call a clairvoyant
💡 Explanation: In desperation, the father used folk medicine: pouring paraffin and lighting it to stop the poison.
Q44.
The writhing of eunuchs in vacant ecstasy in The Dance of the Eunuchs alludes to –
Options:
(1) Contentment in life
(2) Emotional blankness ✅
(3) Physical agility
(4) Zeal and enthusiasm
💡 Explanation: “Vacant ecstasy” is an oxymoron, representing hollow joy, reflecting the eunuchs’ emptiness despite their dance.
Q45.
Kamala Das contrasts which two elements in Dance of the Eunuchs?
Options:
(1) Greenery and deluge
(2) Ecstasy and sterility ✅
(3) Mirth and glee
(4) Heat and dust
💡 Explanation: The eunuchs’ joyous dance contrasts with their inability to create life, thus ecstasy vs. sterility.
Q46.
What did the eunuchs not sing about in Dance of the Eunuchs?
Options:
(1) Lovers dying
(2) Children left unborn
(3) Melancholic themes
(4) Better times to come ✅
💡 Explanation: The poem’s tone is melancholic; it reflects pain, loss, and sterility, not hope or better future.
Q47.
When is Macbeth given the title Thane of Cawdor, and by whom?
Options:
(1) On the barren heath by Banquo
(2) In Inverness by Lady Macbeth
(3) Following the defeat of Norway by Duncan ✅
(4) During battle by the King’s emissary Ross
💡 Explanation: After Macbeth defeats Norway, King Duncan rewards him with the title, replacing the traitorous Cawdor.
Q48.
“Will all great Neptune’s ocean wash this blood clean from my hand?” is said by –
Options:
(1) Lady Macbeth sleepwalking
(2) Macbeth after murdering Duncan ✅
(3) Banquo’s ghost at the banquet
(4) Macduff’s wife’s murderers
💡 Explanation: Macbeth feels overwhelming guilt after killing Duncan and uses this hyperbolic metaphor.
Q49.
“Tomorrow, and tomorrow, and tomorrow…” is uttered by Macbeth upon –
Options:
(1) Birnam Wood moving
(2) Learning Macduff’s birth secret
(3) Hearing of Lady Macbeth’s death ✅
(4) Donalbain’s escape
💡 Explanation: This speech reflects Macbeth’s despair and existential dread after Lady Macbeth’s death.
Q50.
According to Macbeth, the “chief nourisher in life’s feast” is –
Options:
(1) Rich diet
(2) Sleep ✅
(3) Love
(4) Solace from friends
💡 Explanation: In Act 2, Scene 2, Macbeth calls sleep the “chief nourisher in life’s feast”, highlighting its restorative power.
Q51.
Rosalind in Shakespeare’s As You Like It disguises herself as:
(1) Aliena
(2) Silvius
(3) Ganymede ✅
(4) Jaques
💡 Explanation: Rosalind adopts the identity of Ganymede, a young man, to navigate safely in the Forest of Arden and interact freely with Orlando.
Q52.
According to Jaques in his monologue “All the world’s a stage”, the seventh stage is:
(1) A slippered pantaloon with spectacles
(2) Second childishness and mere oblivion ✅
(3) A woeful ballad with strange oaths
(4) Full of wise saws and modern instances
💡 Explanation: Jaques outlines the “seven ages of man.” The last (seventh) stage is “second childishness and mere oblivion,” indicating senility and death.
Q53.
Who says, “O coz, coz, coz, my pretty little coz… how many fathom deep I am in love!” in As You Like It?
(1) Celia
(2) Phoebe
(3) Orlando
(4) Rosalind ✅
💡 Explanation: This line is spoken by Rosalind, expressing her intense love for Orlando while in disguise as Ganymede.
Q54.
In the epilogue, Rosalind makes her last appeal to –
(1) Jacques to be happy
(2) Her father to stay in Arden
(3) The women in the audience to like the play ✅
(4) Ganymede not to trouble Orlando
💡 Explanation: In the epilogue, Rosalind speaks directly to the female audience, asking them to appreciate the play and clap for the actors.
Q55.
What is Bacon’s prescription for those whose ‘wits’ are wandering?
(1) Pour over lawyer’s cases
(2) Emulate schoolmen
(3) Study mathematics ✅
(4) Replicate influential manners
💡 Explanation: In Of Studies, Bacon suggests that for wandering minds, the study of mathematics provides focus and order.
Q56.
How, according to Bacon, do wise men look at studies?
(1) They condemn studies
(2) They admire them
(3) They confute them
(4) They use them ✅
💡 Explanation: Bacon writes that wise men use studies practically, not just to show off or argue with others.
Q57.
Lamb did not mind the chimney-sweeper’s laughter when he fell on the road because –
(1) It was his silly mistake
(2) It was a humorous incident
(3) It was a funny scene
(4) It gave the boy a chance to laugh ✅
💡 Explanation: Lamb, in his essay In Praise of Chimney Sweepers, expresses affection for children, finding joy in their laughter even at his own mishap.
Q58.
Charles Lamb does not use which endearment for chimney-sweepers?
(1) Dim specks
(2) Devilish blokes ✅
(3) Poor blots
(4) Innocent blackness
💡 Explanation: Lamb affectionately calls them “dim specks”, “poor blots”, and “innocent blackness”, but not “devilish blokes”.
Q59.
Weydon Priors in The Mayor of Casterbridge is –
(1) A hay trusser ✅
(2) A plain farm town
(3) A church
(4) A quarrelsome adversary
💡 Explanation: Henchard, the protagonist, is a hay trusser when he arrives at Weydon Priors, where he sells his wife.
Q60.
The last line of Hardy’s The Mayor of Casterbridge is –
(1) …mankind might some night be innocently sleeping when these quiet objects were raging loud
(2) Character is fate
(3) …happiness was but the occasional episode in a general drama of pain ✅
(4) To this I put my name
💡 Explanation: This line reflects Hardy’s pessimistic worldview, suggesting that happiness is fleeting in an otherwise painful life.
Q61.
Who reveals the past of Henchard in the court where he is a magistrate?
(1) Lucetta
(2) Elizabeth Jane
(3) Susan
(4) Goodenough ✅
💡 Explanation: In The Mayor of Casterbridge, Goodenough, a furmity woman, recognizes Henchard and exposes his shameful past of selling his wife.
Q62.
At the end of The Vendor of Sweets, Jagan –
(1) Is taken to jail
(2) Retreats to the grove ✅
(3) Takes Grace back to America
(4) Becomes a sculptor
💡 Explanation: Disillusioned by his son Mali’s actions, Jagan withdraws from worldly responsibilities and chooses a quiet, ascetic life in a grove.
Q63.
“‘A dose of prison life is not a bad thing. It may be just what he needs now.’” — Who says this in The Vendor of Sweets?
(1) Cousin
(2) Grace
(3) Jagan ✅
(4) The white-bearded man
💡 Explanation: Jagan reacts to Mali’s arrest by saying this line, reflecting his disappointment but also a belief that suffering might reform his son.
Q64.
Jagan got the greatest shock of his life when he learned that –
(1) Mali wanted $1,000 to set up a factory
(2) Mali and Grace lived together unmarried ✅
(3) Mali had been arrested for alcohol
(4) Grace had left the house
💡 Explanation: Jagan, being conservative and traditional, is deeply shocked to discover that Mali and Grace are not married, despite living together.
Q65.
A sentence, quotation, or poem at the beginning of a written work is called:
(1) An epilogue
(2) An epigraph ✅
(3) An essay
(4) A denotation
💡 Explanation: An epigraph is a short quotation or phrase placed at the beginning of a book or chapter to suggest its theme.
Q66.
The figure of speech where a part stands for the whole is called –
(1) Synecdoche ✅
(2) Allegory
(3) Paradox
(4) Personification
💡 Explanation: In synecdoche, a part represents the whole (e.g., “all hands on deck” where “hands” means people).
Q67.
“I babble on the pebbles… I murmur under the moon and stars.” These lines contain examples of –
(1) Onomatopoeia ✅
(2) Pun
(3) Hyperbole
(4) Oxymoron
💡 Explanation: Onomatopoeia involves sound-imitative words like “babble” and “murmur,” echoing the sound of water.
Q68.
A work using mockery and exaggeration to criticize absurdity or weakness is –
(1) Malapropism
(2) Cliché
(3) Satire ✅
(4) Pastiche
💡 Explanation: Satire ridicules flaws, vices, or absurdities in individuals or society, often using humor, irony, and exaggeration.
Q69.
A narrative poem or song in short rhymed stanzas, often with a refrain, is called a –
(1) Elegy
(2) Ballad ✅
(3) Epic
(4) Picaresque
💡 Explanation: A ballad is a simple narrative poem, traditionally passed orally, often with repetition and a refrain.
Q70.
The correct phonetic transcription of “coffee” is –
(1) /kófie/
(2) /kofi/ ✅
(3) /’keufe/
(4) /’kaufi/
💡 Explanation: The standard pronunciation of “coffee” in IPA is /ˈkɒfi/ or /ˈkɔːfi/ depending on the accent. Here, /kofi/ is the most acceptable transcription from the options.
Q71.
The correct phonetic transcription of “program” is –
(1) /ˈpregræm/ ✅
(2) /program/
(3) /ˈprau:gram/
(4) /ˈpereugram/
💡 Explanation: The correct IPA for “program” (in standard English) is /ˈproʊɡræm/ or /ˈpregræm/. Option (1) is closest.
Q72.
Choose the option with the correct phonetic transcription of the word language.
(1) /ˈlæŋgwɪdʒ/ ✅
(2) /ˈlangueraz/
💡 Explanation: The correct IPA for “language” is /ˈlæŋɡwɪdʒ/. Option (1) represents the standard transcription.
Q73.
Phonetic transcription of theory is –
(1) /ˈθiːəri/ ✅
(2) /ˈleori/
(3) /ˈthieri/
(4) /ˈerari/
💡 Explanation: “Theory” is pronounced as /ˈθɪəri/ or /ˈθiːəri/ depending on the accent. Option (1) is correct.
Q74.
The dominant theme in The Waste Land is –
(1) The citified modern civilization ✅
(2) Traditional rural life
(3) Deeply religious and spiritual life
(4) Unrealistic imaginary life
💡 Explanation: Eliot’s The Waste Land critiques the spiritual barrenness of modern urban society after WWI.
Q75.
In Greek mythology, Tiresias did not have one of these attributes –
(1) He was the son of Apollo ✅
(2) He was a blind prophet
(3) He was famous for clairvoyance
(4) He was transformed into a woman for seven years
💡 Explanation: Tiresias was a blind prophet, known for clairvoyance and for living as a woman for seven years, but he was not the son of Apollo.
Q76.
“Do you know nothing?… Do you remember nothing?” These lines from The Waste Land suggest –
(1) Hypothesis
(2) Amnesia ✅
(3) Elation
(4) Jubilation
💡 Explanation: These lines reflect the forgetfulness and spiritual amnesia of modern society, unable to recall meaningful truths or traditions.
Q77.
The theme not included in the first part of Part V “What the Thunder Said” is –
(1) The resurrection of Christ
(2) Images of a spiritual desert
(3) Symbolic mountains and lack of water
(4) Advice from the Upanishads ✅
💡 Explanation: The Upanishadic advice (Datta, Dayadhvam, Damyata) appears later in Part V, not in the first part.
Q78.
“You’re dead… You’re nothing but an odor.” In The Birthday Party, these lines are said by –
(1) Meg to Stanley
(2) Stanley to Lulu
(3) Goldberg to Stanley ✅
(4) Petey to Meg
💡 Explanation: Goldberg psychologically tortures Stanley with these degrading words, part of the play’s “comedy of menace” tone.
Q79.
The two who come to stay at the boarding house together in The Birthday Party are –
(1) Petey and Meg
(2) Teddy and Joey
(3) Goldberg and McCann ✅
(4) Stanley and Lulu
💡 Explanation: Goldberg and McCann arrive at the boarding house and soon begin intimidating Stanley.
Q80.
Harold Pinter’s The Birthday Party is called a comedy of –
(1) Manners
(2) Menace ✅
(3) Horror
(4) Torture
💡 Explanation: The play is known as a “comedy of menace”, blending humor with an underlying sense of threat and fear.
Q81.
In Anita Desai’s Cry, the Peacock, the author does not use the image/symbol of:
(1) Suckling rats
(2) Slithering iguanas
(3) Caged monkeys
(4) Penitent donkeys ✅
💡 Explanation: Anita Desai uses strong, grotesque, and disturbing animal imagery in Cry, the Peacock, but “penitent donkeys” is not among them.
Q82.
How did Maya die in Cry, the Peacock?
(1) She met with a fatal accident
(2) She committed suicide ✅
(3) She was murdered
(4) She died due to an old disease
💡 Explanation: Maya jumps from the terrace and dies by suicide, a result of her psychological breakdown and obsessive fear from an old prophecy.
Q83.
A stable, fully functional, natural language developed from a mixture of languages is:
(1) Pidgin
(2) Creole ✅
(3) Quechua
(4) Lingua adaptive
💡 Explanation: A Creole evolves from a Pidgin when it becomes the first language of a community. It’s stable and grammatically developed.
Q84.
A language constructed impromptu as a makeshift communication bridge is:
(1) Patois
(2) Pidgin ✅
(3) Parole
(4) Paraole
💡 Explanation: A Pidgin is a simplified form of language that develops for communication between speakers of different native languages.
Q85.
Code-switching is only possible when the speaker –
(1) Knows his mother tongue well
(2) Knows at least two languages ✅
(3) Falls short of adequate conventions
(4) Intends to be secretive
💡 Explanation: Code-switching involves shifting between two languages within a conversation, so bilingualism is essential.
Q86.
Code-mixing refers to –
(1) Using several languages fluently
(2) Translating between languages
(3) Using one language only
(4) Using lexical and grammatical items from two languages in the same utterance ✅
💡 Explanation: Code-mixing is the mixing of words or phrases from two languages within a single sentence or utterance.
Q87.
Choose the option not true of Pidgin –
(1) It is a contact language for business
(2) Used when communities don’t share a language
(3) It is not a hybrid language ✅
(4) It has low prestige compared to standard languages
💡 Explanation: A Pidgin is indeed a hybrid language — combining features from two or more languages for practical communication.
Q88.
Choose the option not true of Creole –
(1) Pidgin is a necessary precedent
(2) It is nativized by children
(3) It becomes standardized over time
(4) It does not have any sound system ✅
💡 Explanation: Creole languages have a complete phonological (sound) system. Statement (4) is false.
Q89.
Which of the following influences classroom behaviour of a learner the most?
(1) The Teacher ✅
(2) The Monitor
(3) The Peer Group
(4) The Principal
💡 Explanation: The teacher, through interaction, instruction, and discipline, is the primary influence on classroom behavior.
Q90.
The primary task of the teacher is –
(1) To teach the prescribed curriculum
(2) To stimulate and guide student learning ✅
(3) To promote conformity to adults
(4) To provide remedial aid
💡 Explanation: While all tasks matter, the main role of a teacher is to motivate and guide students toward meaningful learning.
Q91.
Nature of Teaching is –
(1) Exclusively applied
(2) Simple
(3) Complex ✅
(4) Interdisciplinary only
💡 Explanation: Teaching is considered a complex process because it involves planning, interaction, behavior management, evaluation, and adapting to student needs.
Q92.
Steps of the teaching-learning process are –
(1) Planning, Managing, Executing, Controlling
(2) Planning, Organisation, Leading, Controlling ✅
(3) Planning, Execution, Management, Evaluation
(4) Planning, Leading, Organisation, Controlling
💡 Explanation: These four steps are standard across management and teaching frameworks: Planning, Organisation, Leading, Controlling—making option (2) correct.
Q93.
Schools help people to –
(1) Assimilate culture ✅
(2) Enjoy culture
(3) Protest against culture
(4) Ignore culture
💡 Explanation: One key role of education is cultural transmission, meaning schools help students assimilate societal norms, values, and heritage.
Q94.
The normal thirteen-year-old child is most likely to –
(1) Have difficulty with gross motor coordination
(2) Have anxiety about pleasing adults
(3) Confine interests to the here and now
(4) Be eager for peer approval ✅
💡 Explanation: At this age, peer approval becomes very important as adolescents seek belonging and acceptance among peers.
Q95.
New cognitive (mental) abilities lead teens to –
(1) Argue, so they try out their new thinking abilities ✅
(2) Give up school work
(3) Have difficulty reversing a situation
(4) Believe everything they see
💡 Explanation: As cognitive ability develops in adolescence, they begin to reason, question, and argue as a form of exercising new thought processes.
Q96.
Emotional fluctuations in adolescents are not caused by –
(1) Hormonal changes
(2) Only heredity ✅
(3) Mood swings
(4) Political environment
💡 Explanation: While hormones and mood swings play a role, heredity alone is not the direct cause of rapid emotional fluctuations.
Q97.
An emotionally mature adolescent is one who –
(1) Represses peers
(2) Controls his emotions ✅
(3) Considers himself superior
(4) Is unmindful of responsibilities
💡 Explanation: Emotional maturity is reflected in self-control, not in arrogance, repression, or irresponsibility.
Q98.
Heredity plays the greatest role in –
(1) Spiritual development
(2) Social development
(3) Physical development ✅
(4) Cultural development
💡 Explanation: Physical traits such as height, body structure, and eye color are largely influenced by heredity.
Q99.
A very useful principle of learning is that a new response is strengthened by –
(1) Punishment
(2) Reinforcement ✅
(3) Feedback
(4) Discriminative stimulus
💡 Explanation: Reinforcement (positive or negative) strengthens behavior; this is a key concept in behavioral learning theories.
Q100.
Who is not a behaviorist?
(1) Carl Rogers ✅
(2) B.F. Skinner
(3) J.B. Watson
(4) I.P. Pavlov
💡 Explanation: Carl Rogers is a humanistic psychologist, while Skinner, Watson, and Pavlov are core figures in behaviorism.
✅
Q101.
Kohler proved that learning is –
(1) An autonomous random activity
(2) The perception of the whole situation ✅
(3) The perception of different parts of a situation
(4) Bonding of stimulus and responses
💡 Explanation: Kohler, through his chimpanzee experiment, demonstrated insight learning, where the animal perceived the problem as a whole, not in parts. So, learning was shown to be gestalt-based.
✅
Q102.
Which one of the following is the most important for teaching a concept?
(1) Using advance organizer ✅
(2) Law of exercise
(3) Law of belongingness
(4) Encouraging students for discovery
💡 Explanation: According to Ausubel, the use of advance organizers helps students relate new knowledge to existing cognitive structures, making it crucial for teaching concepts effectively.
✅
Q103.
Which among the following is not a stage of cognitive development according to Bruner?
(1) Enactive stage
(2) Iconic stage
(3) Intuitive stage ✅
(4) Symbolic stage
💡 Explanation: Bruner’s stages of cognitive development are: Enactive (action-based), Iconic (image-based), and Symbolic (language-based). “Intuitive stage” is not part of Bruner’s model.
✅
Q104.
The book “Emotional Intelligence: Why it can matter more than I.Q.” is written by –
(1) E.L. Thorndike
(2) Daniel Goleman ✅
(3) Peter Solvey
(4) John Mayer
💡 Explanation: Daniel Goleman popularized the concept of Emotional Intelligence in his bestselling 1995 book, where he argued it could matter more than traditional IQ.
✅
Q105.
In case a student points out an error in a question paper, as an invigilator you will –
(1) Inform the available subject teacher
(2) Immediately correct the error
(3) Advise him to wait till correction is made by appropriate authority ✅
(4) Not entertain the complaint at all
💡 Explanation: It is the role of the exam authority to handle paper errors. As an invigilator, you should advise the student to wait for official correction to avoid miscommunication or misjudgment.
✅
Q106.
As adolescents move toward independence, the wise parents –
(1) Read the teen’s email
(2) Keep firm control
(3) Give the teen an opportunity to make more choices and act as a resource ✅
(4) Restrict clothing styles
💡 Explanation: Wise parenting encourages autonomy while offering guidance. Acting as a resource fosters independence and responsibility in adolescents.
✅
Q107.
Which of the following is not a component of Emotional Intelligence?
(1) Self-awareness
(2) Self-regulation
(3) Self-presentation ✅
(4) Empathy
💡 Explanation: Self-presentation is more about impression management than Emotional Intelligence. EI includes self-awareness, self-regulation, motivation, empathy, and social skills.
✅
Q108.
Which of the following is not a symptom of maladjustment?
(1) Nail biting
(2) Day dreaming ✅
(3) High stress
(4) Truancy
💡 Explanation: While daydreaming is often a normal part of cognitive development and imagination, truancy, nail biting, and high stress are clear symptoms of maladjustment.
✅
Q109.
Which of the following is not an element of a teaching model?
(1) Focus
(2) Syntax
(3) Social System
(4) System Analysis ✅
💡 Explanation: A typical teaching model includes Focus, Syntax, Social System, and Support System. System Analysis belongs to instructional design or educational planning, not teaching models directly.
✅
Q110.
Founder of Inquiry Training Model is –
(1) Hilda Taba
(2) Robert Glaser
(3) Jerome S. Bruner
(4) J. Richard Suchman ✅
💡 Explanation: J. Richard Suchman developed the Inquiry Training Model, which encourages students to develop and test hypotheses through inductive reasoning and discovery learning.
✅
Q111.
Constructivism as a theory –
(1) focuses on the role of imitation
(2) emphasises on the dominant role of the teacher
(3) emphasises the role of the learner in creating his own view of the world ✅
(4) information and testing through recall
💡 Explanation: Constructivism sees learners as active participants who construct their own knowledge based on experiences. It emphasizes individual understanding rather than rote learning.
✅
Q112.
Who developed the advance organizer model of teaching?
(1) David P. Ausubel ✅
(2) Jean Piaget
(3) B.F. Skinner
(4) Lawrence Kohlberg
💡 Explanation: David Ausubel developed the Advance Organizer Model which helps learners connect prior knowledge with new concepts using structured introductions.
🚫
Q113.
Which of the following arrangements is correct?
(Answer Key Missing — marked as *)
Options:
(1) Sender, Channel, Receiver
(2) Sender, Message, Encoding, Channel, Receiver
(3) Message, Sender, Encoding, Channel, Receiver
(4) Sender, Encoding, Message, Receiver, Channel
💡 Correct Answer (Best fit): (2) Sender, Message, Encoding, Channel, Receiver
Explanation: In communication, the general sequence is: Sender → Message → Encoding → Channel → Receiver. Option (2) follows this logical order, though not listed as correct in the key.
✅
Q114.
The CAI (Computer Assisted Instruction) technique based on programmed instruction is –
(1) Frame-based CAI ✅
(2) Problem-solving CAI
(3) Generative CAI
(4) Intelligent CAI
💡 Explanation: Frame-based CAI follows the linear or branching program model used in Programmed Instruction, presenting information in small units with feedback.
✅
Q115.
Which approach out of the following is known as “Educational Technology III”?
(1) Hardware Approach
(2) Software Approach
(3) System Approach ✅
(4) Discovery Approach
💡 Explanation: Educational Technology III refers to the System Approach, focusing on design, implementation, feedback, and evaluation of the educational process.
✅
Q116.
System Approach is the outcome of –
(1) Humanistic view
(2) Behaviouristic view
(3) Cognitivistic view ✅
(4) Constructivistic view
💡 Explanation: The System Approach integrates objectives, inputs, processes, outputs, and feedback, and is closely related to Cognitivism, where mental processes are mapped systematically.
✅
Q117.
A CPU (Central Processing Unit) contains –
(1) A card reader and a printing device
(2) An analytical engine and a control unit
(3) A control unit and an arithmetic logic unit ✅
(4) An arithmetic logic unit and a card reader
💡 Explanation: The CPU consists of ALU (Arithmetic Logic Unit) and Control Unit, which process data and control instructions respectively.
✅
Q118.
A set of instructions telling the computer what to do is called –
(1) Mentor
(2) Instructor
(3) Compiler
(4) Programme ✅
💡 Explanation: A programme is a set of coded instructions that tells a computer what operations to perform.
✅
Q119.
___ students who attended the talk did not stay long.
(1) A few
(2) The few ✅
(3) Most of
(4) Most all
💡 Explanation: “The few” emphasizes a small known group. So, “The few students who attended the talk…” is grammatically and contextually accurate.
✅
Q120.
___ philosophy is concerned with questions that have no answers.
(1) Many of
(2) Much of ✅
(3) Each of
(4) One of
💡 Explanation: Philosophy is an uncountable noun, so the correct determiner is “Much of”. Hence, “Much of philosophy is concerned…” is correct.
✅
Q121.
There is ___ room left in the auditorium.
(1) many
(2) few
(3) a few
(4) little ✅
💡 Explanation: “Room” here refers to space, an uncountable noun, so the correct determiner is “little” (meaning not much space is left).
✅
Q122.
Do you know Orwell’s books? I haven’t read ___.
(1) much
(2) some
(3) more
(4) any ✅
💡 Explanation: In a negative sentence, “any” is appropriate: “I haven’t read any.” “Books” is plural, and “any” is suitable for both countable and uncountable nouns in negative context.
✅
Q123.
Add ___ vowel after last ___ consonant.
(1) an, the
(2) a, a
(3) an, a ✅
(4) a, the
💡 Explanation: “An” is used before vowel sounds, so: “Add an vowel (incorrect)” → Instead, we say “a vowel”, so option (3) is best: “Add an, a consonant.”
⚠️ Note: There seems to be a printing or key error; the correct answer logically is (3), even though the key says (4).
✅
Q124.
Have you ___ the door tight?
(1) shutted
(2) shutened
(3) shut ✅
(4) shat
💡 Explanation: The verb “shut” is irregular and does not change in past participle form: shut – shut – shut.
✅
Q125.
He ___ the college last year.
(1) can leave
(2) left ✅
(3) has left
(4) will leave
💡 Explanation: The phrase “last year” indicates simple past tense, so “left” is correct.
✅
Q126.
This particular problem ___ us for a long time now.
(1) has been troubling ✅
(2) may troubling be
(3) is been troubling
(4) has been troubled
💡 Explanation: Present perfect continuous tense fits: “has been troubling” indicates the problem started in the past and continues now.
✅
Q127.
He is disappointed at not ___ to see any play while he was in Kolkata.
(1) have gone
(2) having gone ✅
(3) have go
(4) have goed
💡 Explanation: After a preposition like “at not,” we use gerund or perfect participle. “Having gone” is correct.
✅
Q128.
“If I had the instruction manual, I would know what to do,” said the passenger. (Indirect)
(1) The passenger said had he had…
(2) The passenger said if he had…
(3) The passenger said whether he had…
(4) The passenger said if I had…
💡 Correct Answer: The official key is missing (*), but the correct answer is:
(2) The passenger said if he had the instruction manual, he would know what to do. ✅
It maintains tense and person consistency.
✅
Q129.
Mohit said to Monu, “Where is your house?”
(1) Mohit asked Monu where was your house.
(2) Mohit asked Monu where your house was.
(3) Mohit asked Monu where your house has been.
(4) Mohit asked Monu where his house was. ✅
💡 Explanation: In indirect speech, pronouns and word order are adjusted. So, “your” becomes “his,” and question word order changes to statement form.
✅
Q130.
He said that he needn’t be in the office till ten the next morning. (Direct)
(1) He said, “I needn’t be in the office till ten tomorrow morning.” ✅
(2) He told me, “I needn’t be in the office till ten in the morning.”
(3) He said, “You are not needed in the office…”
(4) He advised, “Stay away from the office till ten…”
💡 Explanation: The indirect sentence uses “he needn’t…” → in direct speech, it is quoted as “I needn’t be in the office…”
✅
Q131.
Choose the correct option of the passive construction.
They poured water on us.
(1) We were poured water.
(2) We had been poured water on.
(3) Water had been poured on us.
(4) Water was poured on us. ✅
💡 Explanation: In passive voice, the object “water” becomes the subject. Correct transformation: “Water was poured on us” (simple past passive).
✅
Q132.
They are preparing the papers now.
(1) The papers can be prepared now.
(2) The papers will be prepared now.
(3) The papers are going to be prepared now.
(4) The papers are being prepared now. ✅
💡 Explanation: Present continuous passive of “are preparing” is “are being prepared.”
✅
Q133.
What makes these holes? (Passive)
(1) How are these holes made?
(2) What are these holes made by?
(3) Who makes these holes with?
(4) Do these holes are made by?
💡 Correct Answer: (2) What are these holes made by? ✅
Even though it’s awkward, it retains the interrogative passive structure. “What makes…” becomes “What are… made by?”
✅
Q134.
When their mother was ill, the children were looked after by their neighbours. (Active)
(1) When their mother was ill, their neighbours looked after the children. ✅
(2) The children had been looked after…
(3) When their mother being ill…
(4) Neighbours looked after the children when the mother was taken ill.
💡 Explanation: Active voice must begin with the doer (neighbours); the first option does this correctly.
✅
Q135.
Only the science students can apply for this post. (Negative)
(1) None but the science students cannot apply…
(2) None but the science students can apply… ✅
(3) Only but the science students cannot apply…
(4) No other than science students cannot apply…
💡 Explanation: “Only the science students” → “None but the science students.” This is the correct negative transformation.
✅
Q136.
Everyone wishes to be happy. (Interrogative)
(1) Is there any man who wishes to be happy?
(2) Is there no one who wishes happiness?
(3) Is there any man who doesn’t wish to be happy? ✅
(4) Is there not any man who wishes not being happy?
💡 Explanation: The interrogative form of a universal positive statement uses double negatives for contrast.
✅
Q137.
As soon as the thief saw the policeman, he ran away.
(1) No sooner did the thief see the policeman than he ran away. ✅
(2) No sooner did the thief saw…
(3) No sooner did the thief see the policeman he ran away.
(4) No sooner did the policeman see the thief than he ran away.
💡 Explanation: “As soon as” is often transformed to “No sooner… than…” The verb following “did” must be base form: “see.”
✅
Q138.
Nowhere in the world will you find a monument like the Taj Mahal.
(1) Where in the world will you find a monument like the Taj Mahal? ✅
(2) Where in the world you would find…
(3) Where in the world did you find…
(4) Where in the world you had found…
💡 Explanation: The sentence becomes affirmative interrogative: “Where will you find…?” Correct subject–verb order is maintained.
✅
Q139.
He must accept his fault, otherwise he will not be spared. (Complex)
(1) He who is at fault must accept to be spared…
(2) Not only he will accept his fault…
(3) Unless he accepts his fault, he will not be spared. ✅
(4) If he does accept his fault, he will not be spared.
💡 Explanation: “Otherwise” can be transformed into “Unless…” in complex form. This keeps the conditional structure.
✅
Q140.
Besides being sent to prison, the culprit was heavily fined. (Compound)
(1) Although the culprit was sent to prison, he was also not only heavily fined.
(2) The culprit was not only sent to prison but also heavily fined. ✅
(3) The culprit was not only sent to prison moreover…
(4) The culprit sent to prison heavily fined too.
💡 Explanation: “Besides” becomes “not only… but also…” in a compound sentence. Correct structure: subject + was + verb phrase.
✅
Q141.
Choose the correct option of the transformation from simple to complex sentence.
Her silence proves her guilt.
(1) She is silent and this proves her guilt.
(2) The fact that she is silent proves her guilt. ✅
(3) Her guilt is proved by her silence.
(4) Her silence goes to prove her guilt.
💡 Explanation: A complex sentence transforms a phrase into a clause. “Her silence” → “The fact that she is silent” makes it complex.
✅
Q142.
I was the first to reach the winning end. (Complex)
(1) I was the first who reached the winning end. ✅
(2) I only it was to have reached the end that was winning.
(3) It was me alone to be the first to reach the end winning.
(4) I was the first winner to have reach the end which was winning.
💡 Explanation: “To reach” → “who reached” makes it complex. This changes the infinitive into a relative clause.
✅
Q143.
The teacher, as well as his principal, _ exonerated.
(1) were
(2) are
(3) was ✅
(4) have been
💡 Explanation: The phrase “as well as” doesn’t make the subject plural. The singular subject “The teacher” governs the verb: was.
✅
Q144.
You have stood so long in the queue in this heat.
(1) could be
(2) shouldn’t
(3) mayn’t to
(4) oughtn’t to be ✅
💡 Explanation: The modal “ought not to be” expresses that the person should not have stayed long in such heat.
✅
Q145.
Did he ___ criticize my arrangements?
(1) might
(2) would
(3) dare ✅
(4) could
💡 Explanation: “Did he dare…” is a correct interrogative form using “dare” as a semi-modal verb.
✅
Q146.
Neither the students nor their teacher ___ quite prepared.
(1) are
(2) is ✅
(3) were
(4) have been
💡 Explanation: In “neither…nor,” the verb agrees with the nearest subject (“teacher” is singular), so is is correct.
✅
Q147.
They got married ___ seventeen.
(1) above
(2) over
(3) into
(4) at ✅
💡 Explanation: We use “at” to refer to age. So, “at seventeen” is the correct prepositional phrase.
✅
Q148.
There is no cure ___ that disease.
(1) of
(2) for ✅
(3) to
(4) about
💡 Explanation: The correct preposition with “cure” is “for”. We say “cure for a disease.”
✅
Q149.
___ doing the cooking, I can help you with your computer work as well.
(1) Beside
(2) Besides ✅
(3) Except
(4) Also
💡 Explanation: “Besides” means “in addition to.” “Beside” means “next to,” which is incorrect here.
✅
Q150.
He got to the station just ___ time to catch the 8.45 shuttle.
(1) by
(2) in ✅
(3) upon
(4) at
💡 Explanation: The correct idiom is “in time to do something” meaning “not late.”