Q1.
The author says that throughout history
(1) every man died on attaining 27 years of age.
(2) the average life of people was 27 years. ✅
(3) every man lived beyond 27 years of age or so
(4) all men died after attaining years of age.
Answer:- (2) the average life of people was 27 years. ✅
Explanation: The passage clearly mentions that the average lifespan throughout history was 27 years, indicating that this was the typical age around which people lived.
Q2.
With the development of science and technology in the 19th century
(1) people expected more comforts in life.
(2) agricultural production improved.
(3) people were expected to produce more babies.
(4) more people were expected to live longer. ✅
Answer:- (4) more people were expected to live longer. ✅
Explanation: The passage notes that technological advances trebled life expectancy in the 19th century, allowing people to live longer lives.
Q3.
As science and technology improves
(1) the number of babies born becomes directly proportional to life expectancy.
(2) the number of babies becomes inversely proportional to life expectancy.
(3) average life expectancy goes up and birth rate goes down. ✅
(4) the number of babies is reduced by nature.
Answer:- (3) average life expectancy goes up and birth rate goes down. ✅
Explanation: The passage explains that as life expectancy increases, the birth rate decreases—showing an inverse relationship.
Q4.
According to the author, nature’s intervention for the adjustment of population goes on
(1) without the conscious co-operation of mankind ✅
(2) irrespective of what humans think about it.
(3) with the active intervention of humans
(4) with the eager help of mankind.
Answer:- (1) without the conscious co-operation of mankind ✅
Explanation: The passage mentions that all these adjustments happen “without the conscious co-operation or even the knowledge of the humans concerned.”
Q5.
The fall in birth rate with the increase in life expectancy demonstrates the fact that nature
(1) does not keep on balancing the population figure
(2) keeps on balancing the population figure ✅
(3) never bothers to keep on balancing the population figure
(4) seldom keeps balancing the population figure.
Answer:- (2) keeps on balancing the population figure ✅
Explanation: The passage illustrates that nature balances population automatically based on conditions such as survival rates and war aftermaths.
Q6.
Who replies to Milton’s question “Doth God exact day-labour, light denied” in “On His Blindness”?
(1) Milton’s inner voice
(2) God himself
(3) Patience ✅
(4) Murmur
Answer:- (3) Patience ✅
Explanation: In the poem “On His Blindness,” the personified voice of “Patience” responds to Milton’s doubts about serving God in his blindness.
Q7.
How many impossible tasks does Donne enumerate in the first stanza of his poem “Goe, and catche a falling starre”?
(1) Seven ✅
(2) Six
(3) Five
(4) Four
Answer:- (1) Seven ✅
Explanation: Donne lists seven impossible tasks such as catching a falling star, getting a mandrake root, etc., to emphasize the improbability of finding a true woman.
Q8.
How far does Donne in his poem “Goe and catche a falling starre”, advise the seeker of a true woman to travel?
(1) To the farthest poles of the earth.
(2) For 10,000 days and nights. ✅
(3) Into the centre of the earth.
(4) Throughout the universe
Answer:- (2) For 10,000 days and nights. ✅
Explanation: Donne sarcastically suggests an endless and futile search for a faithful woman, spanning “ten thousand days and nights.”
Q9.
Where exactly did Wordsworth first espy the ten thousand daffodils mentioned in his poem “Daffodils”?
(1) high on the hills and vales.
(2) on the milky way at night.
(3) beside the lake, beneath the trees. ✅
(4) beside the trees.
Answer:- (3) beside the lake, beneath the trees. ✅
Explanation: The poem specifically mentions the daffodils being “beside the lake, beneath the trees.”
Q10.
When according to Wordsworth do the daffodils “flash upon his inward eye”?
(1) When he is in jocund company.
(2) When he is in a vacant and pensive mood ✅
(3) When he is on his wanderings.
(4) When he is asleep and dreaming.
Answer:- (2) When he is in a vacant and pensive mood ✅
Explanation: The famous lines in the poem describe how the memory of the daffodils revives in the poet’s mind during moments of solitude and reflection.
Q11.
How does Shelley in his “Ode to West Wind” compare himself to the wind?
(1) as tumultuous, mighty and harmonious
(2) as tameless, swift and proud ✅
(3) as impetuous and incanting
(4) as chained and bowed
Answer:- (2) as tameless, swift and proud ✅
Explanation: Shelley compares himself to the West Wind as “tameless, and swift, and proud” to express his passionate and free-spirited nature.
Q12.
In the last stanza of his “Ode to the West Wind” Shelley invokes the West Wind to make him his
(1) Ashes
(2) Prophecy
(3) Lyre ✅
(4) Companion
Answer:- (3) Lyre ✅
Explanation: Shelley pleads to the West Wind to make him its lyre (musical instrument) so that his thoughts and poetic voice can be spread by the wind.
Q13.
Keats addresses the Grecian Urn as an “Attic Shape” in his “Ode on a Grecian Urn” because it was
(1) from Greece ✅
(2) preserved in an attic
(3) placed in a Greek museum
(4) a receptacle for ashes
Answer:- (1) from Greece ✅
Explanation: “Attic” refers to the region of Attica in ancient Greece, hence “Attic shape” means Greek in origin and form.
Q14.
What, according to Keats, will the Urn remain to man, when ‘old age shall this generation waste’?
(1) a forgotten historian
(2) a friend ✅
(3) a silent spectator of his woes
(4) an art desolate
Answer:- (2) a friend ✅
Explanation: Keats calls the Urn a “friend to man” as it will continue to tell its silent tale when the present generation is gone.
Q15.
What, according to the Duke in “My Last Duchess”, called that “spot of joy” into the Duchess’ cheek besides the presence of her husband?
(1) a gift of nine-hundred years old name.
(2) a courteous remark made by the painter. ✅
(3) a bough of cherries presented by an officious fool.
(4) the dropping of sunlight in the West
Answer:- (2) a courteous remark made by the painter. ✅
Explanation: The Duke suspects that even small compliments from others, like the painter’s remark, made the Duchess blush—suggesting she was too easily pleased.
Q16.
The theme of Nissim Ezekiel’s poem “Night of the Scorpion” is
(1) Selfless motherhood ✅
(2) Helpless husbands
(3) Hopeless children
(4) Restless spectators
Answer:- (1) Selfless motherhood ✅
Explanation: The mother’s selfless love is central to the poem, especially in her final words expressing gratitude that she was stung instead of her children.
Q17.
How did the villagers in “Night of the Scorpion” by Nissim Ezekiel react to the unfortunate incident?
(1) They stayed away in fear.
(2) They thronged to the temple to invoke the deity.
(3) They cursed and abused the mother for bringing upon them the wrath of god.
(4) They came in swarms to console the family. ✅
Answer:- (4) They came in swarms to console the family. ✅
Explanation: The villagers came in large numbers, murmured prayers, and tried various superstitious remedies to help the mother.
Q18.
Why had the Scorpion entered the house in Ezekiel’s “Night of the Scorpion”?
(1) He had a diabolic plan.
(2) He wanted to test the patience of the villagers.
(3) He was seeking protection from the steady rain. ✅
(4) He had been conjured up by fate.
Answer:- (3) He was seeking protection from the steady rain. ✅
Explanation: The poet says the scorpion “risked the rain again” and entered the house for shelter when it was raining outside.
Q19.
What was not a part of the attire of the eunuchs in Kamala Das’ poem “Dance of the Eunuchs”?
(1) Wide skirts
(2) Heavy silver jewellery
(3) Jingling anklets
(4) Green tattoos on the cheeks ✅
Answer:- (4) Green tattoos on the cheeks ✅
Explanation: The poem describes their attire vividly, but it does not mention green tattoos on their cheeks.
Q20.
Though the dance of the eunuchs, in Kamala Das’ poem by the same name, was loud and frenzied, their songs were
(1) enchanting and soothing
(2) spiritual and peaceful
(3) sad and melancholy ✅
(4) of fairies and elves
Answer:- (3) sad and melancholy ✅
Explanation: Despite the energetic dance, the poem notes that the eunuchs sang of loss and pain, revealing their inner sorrow.
Q21.
Despite the visual richness of the poem
“Dance of the Eunuchs”
, Kamala Das creates an atmosphere of
(1) Gloom and depression ✅
(2) Overpowering hilarity
(3) Joy and pleasantness
(4) Light gladness
Answer:- (1) Gloom and depression ✅
Explanation: The loud and colorful dance contrasts with the underlying emotional despair of the eunuchs, highlighting their loneliness and sorrow.
Q22.
In Shakespeare’s
Macbeth
, who is Ross referring to when he uses the description
“Bellona’s Bridegroom”
?
(1) Banquo
(2) MacDonald
(3) Macbeth ✅
(4) Fleance
Answer:- (3) Macbeth ✅
Explanation: Ross refers to Macbeth as “Bellona’s Bridegroom,” comparing him to the husband of the Roman goddess of war, praising his bravery.
Q23.
“Was the hope drunk, wherein you dressed yourself?”
What hope is Lady Macbeth talking about in Shakespeare’s
Macbeth
?
(1) to kill Macduff
(2) to be “King hereafter” ✅
(3) to get the “damned spot” of blood out
(4) to believe that Banquo’s ghost would not plague Macbeth
Answer:- (2) to be “King hereafter” ✅
Explanation: Lady Macbeth taunts Macbeth for losing the resolve to kill Duncan and fulfill the witches’ prophecy of becoming king.
Q24.
Which of the following is
not
a song from Shakespeare’s
As You Like It
?
(1) Under the greenwood tree
(2) Blow, blow, thou winter wind
(3) What shall he have that killed the deer
(4) Here we go round the Mulberry Bush ✅
Answer:- (4) Here we go round the Mulberry Bush ✅
Explanation: This is a nursery rhyme, not a song from As You Like It. The first three are actual songs from the play.
Q25.
Who is it in
As You Like It
that tutors Orlando how to be a better lover?
(1) Phoebe
(2) Ganymede ✅
(3) Silvius
(4) Aliena
Answer:- (2) Ganymede ✅
Explanation: Rosalind, disguised as Ganymede, gives Orlando lessons on love and how to win a woman’s heart.
Q26.
In the famous monologue from
As You Like It
,
“All the world’s a stage…”
, the “last scene” depicted is
(1) second childishness and mere oblivion ✅
(2) infant mewling and puking
(3) lean and slipper’d pantaloon
(4) fair round belly with good capon lined
Answer:- (1) second childishness and mere oblivion ✅
Explanation: The final stage in Jaques’ monologue represents old age, which is likened to a second infancy, ending in “mere oblivion.”
Q27.
According to Bacon, to use studies too much for ornamentation is
(1) Aberration
(2) Adumbration
(3) Appropriation
(4) Affectation ✅
Answer:- (4) Affectation ✅
Explanation: Bacon warns that excessive use of learning to show off is affectation — insincerity or pretension.
Q28.
What should a man study, according to Bacon in his essay
“Of Studies”
, if his “wit be wandering”?
(1) Mathematics ✅
(2) Logic
(3) Law
(4) The Schoolmen
Answer:- (1) Mathematics ✅
Explanation: Bacon recommends studying mathematics to discipline and settle a wandering or scattered mind.
Q29.
Who was it that wanted to
“reverse the wrongs of fortune”
of the Chimney Sweepers in Lamb’s essay
“In Praise of Chimney Sweepers”
?
(1) The Noble Rachels
(2) Mr. Read
(3) Saloop, the herb-woman’s darling
(4) James White ✅
Answer:- (4) James White ✅
Explanation: Lamb’s friend James White sympathized with chimney sweepers and wanted to make their lives better.
Q30.
What is the subtitle of Thomas Hardy’s novel
The Mayor of Casterbridge
?
(1) Losses and Gains
(2) The Life and Death of a Man of Character ✅
(3) A Pure Woman Faithfully Presented
(4) Penance and Forgiveness
Answer:- (2) The Life and Death of a Man of Character ✅
Explanation: Hardy’s novel bears this subtitle, highlighting its moral exploration of Henchard’s rise and fall.
Q31.
In
The Vendor of Sweets
, Jagan, the protagonist, wants to publish a book on
(1) the great epic Gita
(2) the natural way of living ✅
(3) the art of cooking sweets
(4) Gandhian thought
Answer:- (2) the natural way of living ✅
Explanation: Jagan is a staunch follower of Gandhian principles and advocates nature cure, so he plans to publish a book on natural living.
Q32.
What kind of a machine did Jagan’s son Mali want to invest in
The Vendor of Sweets
?
(1) a beer-vending machine
(2) a sweet-making machine
(3) a story-writing machine ✅
(4) a socks-making machine
Answer:- (3) a story-writing machine ✅
Explanation: Mali, after returning from America, wants to invest in a story-writing machine to commercialize literature.
Q33.
“Five miles meandering in a mazy motion”
is an example of
(1) Anaphora
(2) Assonance
(3) Alliteration ✅
(4) Antithesis
Answer:- (3) Alliteration ✅
Explanation: The repetition of the ‘m’ sound in “miles,” “meandering,” and “mazy motion” makes it a perfect case of alliteration.
Q34.
In the sentence
“Hunger sat miserably in the informal settlement”
there is the use of
(1) Synecdoche
(2) Euphemism
(3) Transferred Epithet
(4) Personification ✅
Answer:- (4) Personification ✅
Explanation: “Hunger” is personified as if it is sitting miserably, which is a human action.
Q35.
A novel written in the form of letters exchanged by characters in the story is described as
(1) Journalese
(2) Epistolary ✅
(3) Memoir
(4) Reportage
Answer:- (2) Epistolary ✅
Explanation: Epistolary novels are composed entirely or primarily of letters exchanged between characters.
Q36.
“Graduate”
takes the stress on
(1) /‘graduest/ ✅
(2) /gre’dueit/
(3) /gradzu’ent/
(4) /grad3’uest/
Answer:- (1) /’graduest/ ✅
Explanation: In British pronunciation, the noun “graduate” has stress on the first syllable.
Q37.
In Section V
“What the Thunder Said”
of
The Waste Land
, the line
“He who was living is now dead”
refers to
(1) The Phoenician
(2) Jesus Christ ✅
(3) St. Augustine
(4) Eugenides
Answer:- (2) Jesus Christ ✅
Explanation: The line alludes to Christ’s crucifixion and resurrection — a central paradox in The Waste Land.
Q38.
Whose
“Birthday”
is being celebrated in Pinter’s
The Birthday Party
?
(1) Petey’s
(2) Meg’s
(3) Stanley’s ✅
(4) Lulu’s
Answer:- (3) Stanley’s ✅
Explanation: Stanley’s birthday is the occasion around which the surreal and disturbing events of the play revolve.
Q39.
The difference between Pidgin and Creole is of
(1) merely the way they are named in different parts of the world
(2) the number of speakers; none in Pidgin and many
(3) temporariness and stability in Creole ✅
(4) how they structurally analysed
Answer:- (3) temporariness and stability in Creole ✅
Explanation: Pidgin languages are simplified and used temporarily, while Creoles evolve into stable, native languages.
Q40.
Change the following sentence into passive form:
How do people learn languages?
(1) How are languages learnt? ✅
(2) How languages are learned by people?
(3) Languages are learnt by people how?
(4) How languages are learnt by people?
Answer:- (1) How are languages learnt? ✅
Explanation: This is the grammatically correct passive transformation of the interrogative sentence.
Q41.
Select the correct meaning of the underlined modal in the sentence given below:
When I was young I could climb any tree in the forest.
(1) possibility
(2) ability ✅
(3) permission
(4) probability
Answer:- (2) ability ✅
Explanation: The modal “could” here expresses the ability the speaker had in the past.
Q42.
Complete the following sentence using the correct modal:
You ___ laugh at his mistakes. (advice)
(1) can’t
(2) shouldn’t ✅
(3) couldn’t
(4) won’t
Answer:- (2) shouldn’t ✅
Explanation: The modal “shouldn’t” is used to give advice against doing something.
Q43.
A salient feature of a good precis is that it
(1) adds to the content of the original passage
(2) paraphrases the original passage in detail
(3) gives all the essential information accurately and concisely ✅
(4) concludes with the writer’s opinion about the passage
Answer:- (3) gives all the essential information accurately and concisely ✅
Explanation: A precis should provide the essence of the passage briefly and precisely without personal opinions.
Q44.
Which is the best way to write a precis?
(1) Summarise the passage in your own language ✅
(2) List all interesting expressions from the passage
(3) Include all examples given in the passage
(4) Use direct speech
Answer:- (1) Summarise the passage in your own language ✅
Explanation: A precis should be written in the writer’s own words and tone, maintaining objectivity.
Q45.
The correct heading of a letter consists of
(1) The receiver’s address and date
(2) The writer’s address and date ✅
(3) The subject of the letter and date
(4) The date only
Answer:- (2) The writer’s address and date ✅
Explanation: The heading of a letter generally includes the sender’s address and the date.
Q46.
Which of the following should the body of an official letter contain?
(1) Direct and brief statement of the purpose of correspondence ✅
(2) General reference to the welfare of the recipient
(3) Enquiry about the recipient’s health
(4) Good wishes for the family of the recipient
Answer:- (1) Direct and brief statement of the purpose of correspondence ✅
Explanation: The body of an official letter should be precise and relevant to the official subject.
Q47.
Which of the following is the correct subscription in a letter to a friend?
(1) Your’s sincerely
(2) You sincerely
(3) Yours sincerely ✅
(4) Your sincerely
Answer:- (3) Yours sincerely ✅
Explanation: “Yours sincerely” is the correct and formal closing, without an apostrophe in “Yours”.
Q48.
A report is a/an
(1) ornamental description
(2) imaginative account
(3) factual and accurate account ✅
(4) statement of the writer’s opinions
Answer:- (3) factual and accurate account ✅
Explanation: A report must be objective, based on facts and supported by data or evidence.
Q49.
Milton’s
On His Blindness
ends with an expression of the poet’s
(1) Faith in God’s way ✅
(2) Questioning of the Justice of God
(3) Pessimism
(4) Resentment at the loss of his talent
Answer:- (1) Faith in God’s way ✅
Explanation: The poem concludes with Milton’s realization that service to God comes even in patient suffering.
Q50.
Who in Milton’s
On His Blindness
is believed to serve God best?
(1) One who bears his burden best ✅
(2) One who presents a true account of his talent
(3) One who doesn’t allow talent to become useless
(4) One who makes full use of his talent
Answer:- (1) One who bears his burden best ✅
Explanation: The poem emphasizes that those who “stand and wait” with patience also serve God effectively.
Q No. 51
Of all the “strange wonders’, the strangest in Donne’s poem Go Catch a Falling Star would be
(1) to catch a falling star
(2) to discover the years gone by
(3) to learn to hear mermaids sing
(4) to find a woman fair and faithful ✅
Answer:- (4) to find a woman fair and faithful ✅
Explanation: Donne humorously suggests that finding a woman who is both beautiful and faithful is rarer than any fantastical feat like catching a falling star.
Q No. 52
“They flash upon the inward eye / Which is the bliss of solitude;”
What in Wordsworth’s poem Daffodils flashes upon the inward eye?
(1) The stars that shine
(2) The lonely clouds
(3) The vales and hills
(4) The daffodils ✅
Answer:- (4) The daffodils ✅
Explanation: The poet recalls the daffodils in his mind’s eye when he is alone and quiet, finding joy in their memory.
Q No. 53
“Are driven, like ghosts from an enchanter fleeing”
Who or what is driven like ghosts in Shelley’s Ode to the West Wind?
(1) The west wind
(2) The dead leaves ✅
(3) The winged seeds
(4) The clouds
Answer:- (2) The dead leaves ✅
Explanation: The dead leaves are blown away like ghosts fleeing from an enchanter, symbolizing death and decay.
Q No. 54
The urn in Keats’ Ode on a Grecian Urn is addressed by which one of the following expressions?
(1) Attic shape ✅
(2) Bold lover
(3) Green altar
(4) O Mysterious priest
Answer:- (1) Attic shape ✅
Explanation: “Attic shape” refers to the Greek (Attica) origin of the urn, emphasizing its classical beauty and timeless form.
Q No. 55
The Duke in Browning’s poem My Last Duchess addresses
(1) Fra Pandolf
(2) The maid of the Duchess
(3) The messenger from the count who brings a marriage proposal ✅
(4) The Duke of Ferrara
Answer:- (3) The messenger from the count who brings a marriage proposal ✅
Explanation: The Duke is speaking to the emissary of a count whose daughter he plans to marry.
Q No. 56
The Duke in Browning’s poem My Last Duchess comes across as
(1) a noble, generous soul
(2) a possessive and egotistical person ✅
(3) a lover of horses
(4) a man of honour
Answer:- (2) a possessive and egotistical person ✅
Explanation: The Duke reveals his arrogance and control issues, particularly in how he treated his last Duchess.
Q No. 57
A typical theme of the eunuchs’ song in Kamala Das’ The Dance of the Eunuchs is
(1) Poverty and pain
(2) Floods and fires
(3) Lovers dying ✅
(4) Children abandoned
Answer:- (3) Lovers dying ✅
Explanation: The eunuchs sing sad songs of lovers dying, reflecting their own pain and longing.
Q No. 58
The last prophecy of the witches – “…for none of woman born / shall harm Macbeth” – is fulfilled when Macbeth fights against
(1) Malcolm
(2) Macduff ✅
(3) Rosse
(4) Lenox
Answer:- (2) Macduff ✅
Explanation: Macduff reveals he was born via Caesarean section, not in the natural way, thus fulfilling the witches’ prophecy.
Q No. 59
“…..There is none but he / whose being I do fear.” Who is the person Macbeth admits to being fearful of?
(1) Macduff
(2) Malcolm
(3) Banquo ✅
(4) Rosse
Answer:- (3) Banquo ✅
Explanation: Macbeth fears Banquo because of his noble nature and the witches’ prophecy that Banquo’s descendants will be kings.
Q No. 60
“All the world’s a stage / And all the men and women merely players.”
The above lines are spoken by
(1) Orlando
(2) The Duke
(3) Jaques ✅
(4) Touchstone
Answer:- (3) Jaques ✅
Explanation: These lines are from Jaques’ famous monologue in As You Like It, where he philosophically compares life to a stage play.
Q No. 61
In Bacon’s view, the purpose of reading should primarily be
(1) to become a scholar
(2) to contradict others
(3) to find matter for conversation
(4) to weigh and consider ✅
Answer:- (4) to weigh and consider ✅
Explanation: Bacon, in his essay Of Studies, emphasizes that the true use of reading is to develop a balanced judgment and understanding.
Q No. 62
Charles Lamb, in his essay In Praise of Chimney Sweepers, compares them on their early morning rounds to
(1) Matin Larks ✅
(2) Little monkeys
(3) Acrobats
(4) Swallows
Answer:- (1) Matin Larks ✅
Explanation: Lamb uses poetic imagery and affectionately compares chimney sweepers to matin larks, emphasizing their cheerfulness at dawn.
Q No. 63
Which of the following expressions is NOT used by Lamb to describe chimney sweepers?
(1) Clergy imps
(2) Innocent blackness
(3) Dim specks
(4) Sable sweepers ✅
Answer:- (4) Sable sweepers ✅
Explanation: While Lamb uses many imaginative descriptions, “Sable sweepers” is not one of the expressions he employs in the essay.
Q No. 64
At the beginning of the novel The Mayor of Casterbridge, what is Michael Henchard’s profession?
(1) Shepherd
(2) Farmer
(3) Hay-trusser ✅
(4) Balladeer
Answer:- (3) Hay-trusser ✅
Explanation: Henchard is a hay-trusser by profession at the start of the novel before his rise and fall in the town of Casterbridge.
Q No. 65
The morning after selling his wife, what pledge does Henchard make?
(1) Not to drink for twenty-one years ✅
(2) To search for his wife and make amends
(3) To choose a better wife for his second marriage
(4) To live the God-fearing life of a good citizen
Answer:- (1) Not to drink for twenty-one years ✅
Explanation: Henchard, filled with remorse, takes an oath not to drink alcohol for 21 years, the age his daughter will be when grown up.
Q No. 66
Who, in R.K. Narayan’s The Vendor of Sweets, acts as a catalyst in the process of Jagan’s transformation?
(1) Mali
(2) The hair-blackener
(3) The Cousin ✅
(4) Grace
Answer:- (3) The Cousin ✅
Explanation: The cousin plays an important role by acting as a mediator and confidante, subtly influencing Jagan’s transformation.
Q No. 67
A poem in which a single speaker at a critical moment addresses another whose presence is implicit in what the speaker says is
(1) a soliloquy
(2) an aside
(3) a dialogue
(4) a dramatic monologue ✅
Answer:- (4) a dramatic monologue ✅
Explanation: A dramatic monologue involves a speaker revealing thoughts and feelings in a speech directed to a silent listener.
Q No. 68
Pick out the word that is correctly transcribed.
(1) lunch – /lʌntʃ/ ✅
(2) select – /’salekt/
(3) freedom – /fri:dm/
(4) teaching – /ti:tʃl:/
Answer:- (1) lunch – /lʌntʃ/ ✅
Explanation: The correct phonetic transcription of “lunch” is /lʌntʃ/. Others have transcription or stress errors.
Q No. 69
In the transcription of the word later given below, choose the correct option from the vowels transcribed.
Later – /leɪtə/
(1) /ɪ/
(2) /e/
(3) /eɪ/ ✅
(4) /aɪ/
Answer:- (3) /eɪ/ ✅
Explanation: The vowel sound /eɪ/ corresponds to the long ‘a’ sound in “later”.
Q No. 70
Given below is the transcription of an English word. Select the word from the options:
/dʒɜːm/
(1) gem
(2) germ ✅
(3) jam
(4) gym
Answer:- (2) germ ✅
Explanation: The IPA transcription /dʒɜːm/ corresponds to the pronunciation of the word “germ”.
Q No. 71
The Waste Land of T.S. Eliot is in the form of
(1) fragmentary monologues ✅
(2) an extended dialogue
(3) a discursive debate
(4) a literary discussion
Answer:- (1) fragmentary monologues ✅
Explanation: The Waste Land is known for its fragmented structure composed of multiple monologues, symbolizing the disintegration of modern civilization.
Q No. 72
Pick out the literary source to which Eliot owes the title of his poem The Waste Land.
(1) The Golden Bough
(2) From Ritual to Romance ✅
(3) Metamorphoses
(4) Heart of Darkness
Answer:- (2) From Ritual to Romance ✅
Explanation: Jessie L. Weston’s From Ritual to Romance significantly influenced Eliot’s imagery and structure in The Waste Land.
Q No. 73
Menace is orchestrated by Pinter in The Birthday Party by subtle devices. Which of the following is most Pinteresque in evoking menace?
(1) Meg and Petey’s banal exchanges about what the newspaper reports
(2) Meg’s evening dress
(3) McCann and Goldberg’s destructive quizzing of Stanley ✅
(4) Lulu’s flirtations
Answer:- (3) McCann and Goldberg’s destructive quizzing of Stanley ✅
Explanation: Their cryptic and aggressive questioning creates psychological tension typical of Pinter’s “comedy of menace.”
Q No. 74
The world in Anita Desai’s Cry, the Peacock centres on
(1) the sylvan countryside
(2) the protagonist’s obsession with the past ✅
(3) the fullness and promise of the present
(4) the protagonist’s hopes for the future
Answer:- (2) the protagonist’s obsession with the past ✅
Explanation: Maya’s mental turmoil and obsession with past events form the core of Desai’s psychological narrative.
Q No. 75
The major action of the novel Cry, the Peacock takes place
(1) in the garden
(2) in the city club
(3) inside the bungalow
(4) in Maya’s mind ✅
Answer:- (4) in Maya’s mind ✅
Explanation: Most of the novel unfolds through Maya’s internal thoughts, reflecting her deteriorating mental state.
Q No. 76
A limited speech code useful only in a limited situation is called
(1) Idiolect
(2) Creole
(3) Pidgin ✅
(4) Dialect
Answer:- (3) Pidgin ✅
Explanation: A pidgin is a simplified language developed for communication between people not sharing a common language.
Q No. 77
A mixed language that develops into a full language and acquires native users is
(1) Creole ✅
(2) Idiolect
(3) Lingua franca
(4) Diglossia
Answer:- (1) Creole ✅
Explanation: A Creole evolves from a Pidgin and becomes the native language of a community, gaining complexity and stability.
Q No. 78
Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Switching from one code to another is a matter of individual choice.
(2) Code-switching is a strategy adopted in response to situational features. ✅
(3) Code-switching is restricted to multilingual societies.
(4) Code-switching is not context-governed.
Answer:- (2) Code-switching is a strategy adopted in response to situational features. ✅
Explanation: Code-switching occurs when a speaker shifts language styles depending on context, audience, or topic.
Q No. 79
Educational psychology uses those researches in educational circumstances which are related to man and other living beings. This definition of Educational Psychology has been given by
(1) C.H. Judd
(2) C.E. Skinner ✅
(3) Prof. Trow
(4) Crow and Crow
Answer:- (2) C.E. Skinner ✅
Explanation: Skinner emphasized the application of psychology to real educational settings involving both human and animal behavior.
Q No. 80
“Educational Psychology can help a particular teacher to decide for herself what she should do in her particular situations with her particular problems.” This view has been expressed by
(1) Kolesnik ✅
(2) Kuppuswami
(3) Blair
(4) Garrison and others
Answer:- (1) Kolesnik ✅
Explanation: Kolesnik highlighted the practical value of educational psychology in assisting teachers with individualized classroom problems.
Q No. 81
“Development of new knowledge should be based on previous knowledge.”
The exponent of this principle is
(1) Skinner
(2) Davis
(3) Stout ✅
(4) B.N. Jha
Answer:- (3) Stout ✅
Explanation: Stout emphasized the constructivist approach in which new learning builds upon the learner’s prior knowledge.
Q No. 82
Plateau in the learning curve indicates
(1) No fatigue
(2) Task is simple
(3) Working conditions are favourable
(4) Loss of interest ✅
Answer:- (4) Loss of interest ✅
Explanation: A plateau in learning usually signals a temporary halt in progress, often due to disinterest or mental fatigue.
Q No. 83
Which one is not there in Thorndike’s laws of learning?
(1) Law of Environment ✅
(2) Law of Readiness
(3) Law of Effect
(4) Law of Exercise
Answer:- (1) Law of Environment ✅
Explanation: Thorndike proposed the Laws of Readiness, Effect, and Exercise. The “Law of Environment” is not among his original laws.
Q No. 84
The exponent of The Method of Insight Learning is
(1) Pavlov
(2) Kohler ✅
(3) Thorndike
(4) Skinner
Answer:- (2) Kohler ✅
Explanation: Wolfgang Kohler developed the concept of insight learning through experiments on chimpanzees, highlighting problem-solving by sudden realization.
Q No. 85
The initiator of the cognitive development theory is
(1) Daniel Goleman
(2) Vygotsky
(3) Jean Piaget ✅
(4) Eriksson
Answer:- (3) Jean Piaget ✅
Explanation: Jean Piaget is known for his theory of cognitive development, which outlines how children’s thinking evolves in stages.
Q No. 86
How many principles have been considered as main points in self-expounded functional approach of lesson planning by Bruner?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6 ❌ (Answer not available in the key, requires verification.)
Answer:- ❌ Answer not provided in your key.
Explanation: Jerome Bruner advocated for principles like motivation, structure, sequence, and reinforcement in lesson planning, but the number needs confirmation.
Q No. 87
The Theory of Learning of Edwin R. Guthrie is
(1) Humanitarian Theory of Learning
(2) Regional Theory of Learning
(3) Contiguity related Theory ✅
(4) Structural Theory of Learning
Answer:- (3) Contiguity related Theory ✅
Explanation: Guthrie proposed the Contiguity Theory, which posits that a combination of stimuli which has accompanied a movement will tend to be followed by that movement again.
Q No. 88
Which statement is irrelevant with reference to providing guidance and counselling to adolescents?
(1) Adolescents should be given opportunities to develop their creative abilities.
(2) Adolescents should be provided guidance in their personal, educational and professional problems.
(3) Adolescents should be given opportunities to understand the causes responsible for their failure.
(4) Adolescents should be strongly scolded for their improper actions. ✅
Answer:- (4) Adolescents should be strongly scolded for their improper actions. ✅
Explanation: Scolding is counterproductive in counselling; guidance should be empathetic and supportive.
Q No. 89
Choose the right alternative with reference to Bandura’s process of learning
(1) The process of learning continues from birth till the age of fifteen years.
(2) The process of learning continues from birth to age of twenty-five years.
(3) The process of learning continues from birth till death. ✅
(4) The process of learning continues from birth till the age of fifty years.
Answer:- (3) The process of learning continues from birth till death. ✅
Explanation: Albert Bandura’s Social Learning Theory emphasizes that learning is a lifelong process through observation and modeling.
Q No. 90
Choose the correct alternative:
(1) As the teacher himself is competent he does not require educational psychology.
(2) Laws of learning develop automatically in modern teaching.
(3) Teacher is not expected to know teaching methods.
(4) A teacher efficient in the laws of learning can teach successfully. ✅
Answer:- (4) A teacher efficient in the laws of learning can teach successfully. ✅
Explanation: Understanding learning principles enhances teaching effectiveness, helping educators adapt methods to students’ needs.
Q No. 91
The process of change in our original behaviours through experience is called learning.
This definition of learning is given by
(1) Charles. E. Skinner ✅
(2) Colvin
(3) Guilford
(4) Pressey
Answer:- (1) Charles. E. Skinner ✅
Explanation: C.E. Skinner defined learning as a process of change in behavior resulting from experience, emphasizing its adaptive nature.
Q No. 92
Which one is not included in steps of learning?
(1) Motive
(2) Goal
(3) Barrier
(4) Organisation ✅
Answer:- (4) Organisation ✅
Explanation: The primary steps in learning typically include motive, goal, and overcoming barriers. “Organisation” is not classified as a basic step.
Q No. 93
Which educationist experimented on CAT with reference to trial and error theory of learning?
(1) Thorndike ✅
(2) McDougall
(3) Llyod
(4) Pavlov
Answer:- (1) Thorndike ✅
Explanation: Edward L. Thorndike developed the trial-and-error theory through experiments on animals (including cats in puzzle boxes).
Q No. 94
When did the Russian Physiologist I.P. Pavlov present the theory of conditioned response?
(1) In the year 1900
(2) In the year 1904 ✅
(3) In the year 1903
(4) In the year 1905
Answer:- (2) In the year 1904 ✅
Explanation: Pavlov presented his classical conditioning theory and won the Nobel Prize in Physiology in 1904 for his work on digestive glands.
Q No. 95
A good family with harmonious relationship between parents and joyous and free environment contributes greatly to the growth of mental health of a child.
This notion concerning mental health is given by
(1) Plant
(2) Frandsen
(3) Kuppuswami ✅
(4) Crow and Crow
Answer:- (3) Kuppuswami ✅
Explanation: Kuppuswami emphasized the role of a supportive family environment in the healthy mental development of children.
Q No. 96
The subject matter of educational psychology is the nature, mental life and behaviour of the individual undergoing the processes of education.
This statement is made by
(1) Douglas and Holland ✅
(2) Crow and Crow
(3) Harris W. Chester
(4) Skinner
Answer:- (1) Douglas and Holland ✅
Explanation: Douglas and Holland focused on the application of psychology to educational settings, studying the learner’s mental life and behavior.
Q No. 97
The emotional development in adolescence is so strange that an adolescent behaves differently on different occasions under the same circumstance.
The scholar who drew this inference is
(1) Alice Crow
(2) B.N. Jha ✅
(3) Hurlock
(4) Carmichael
Answer:- (2) B.N. Jha ✅
Explanation: B.N. Jha discussed the emotional volatility of adolescents and the inconsistency in their behavior due to rapid emotional changes.
Q No. 98
Mental hygiene has to be primarily with the development of more wholesome relationships. It means applying to everyday living what has been learned about human behavior.
The statement was made by
(1) Drever
(2) Crow and Crow
(3) Skinner ✅
(4) Kuppuswami
Answer:- (3) Skinner ✅
Explanation: Skinner emphasized mental hygiene as the application of psychological understanding to improve interpersonal and intrapersonal well-being.
Here are Q No. 99 and Q No. 100 in the required format:
Q No. 99
When did Hull publish his law of reinforcement in its new form?
(1) 1951
(2) 1930
(3) 1932
(4) 1933 ✅
Answer:- (4) 1933 ✅
Explanation: Clark L. Hull, a neo-behaviorist psychologist, published his revised version of the law of reinforcement in 1933, contributing significantly to theories of learning and motivation.
Q No. 100
Which one is not included in the task of motivator as stated by Gates?
(1) Strengthening of behaviour
(2) Determination of tendencies
(3) Behaviour guidance
(4) Negative criticism ✅
Answer:- (4) Negative criticism ✅
Explanation: According to Gates, a motivator’s role is to guide, support, and enhance positive behaviors—not to engage in negative criticism, which can hinder learning and development.
101. When was Indian Association of Programmed Learning (IAPL) set up?
(1) 1966 ✅
(2) 1970
(3) 1978
(4) 1975
✅ Correct Answer: (1) 1966
Explanation: The Indian Association of Programmed Learning (IAPL) was established in 1966 to promote the use of programmed instruction in Indian education.
102. Educational Technology is an application of scientific process to man’s learning conditions. This definition of Educational Technology is given by
(1) G.O.M. Leith
(2) B.C. Mathis
(3) Robert A. Cox ✅
(4) John Leedham
✅ Correct Answer: (3) Robert A. Cox
Explanation: Robert A. Cox emphasized Educational Technology as the application of scientific methods to educational settings.
103. Instructional technique includes tape recorder, record player, television and other materials based on teaching machines which help in teaching larger groups of students in lesser time and expenditure. Credit for the development of this technique is given to
(1) Siegel
(2) Paul Settler
(3) Norman Crowder
(4) Bruner and Glaser ✅
✅ Correct Answer: (4) Bruner and Glaser
Explanation: Jerome Bruner and Robert Glaser contributed significantly to the development of instructional technology aimed at effective and economical teaching methods.
104. The main basis of the emergence of software technique is
(1) The application of psychological principles in the process in teaching-learning. ✅
(2) The effort to change the behaviour of students.
(3) The effort to make the desirable modification in teacher’s behaviour.
(4) The effort to determine the aims of teaching.
✅ Correct Answer: (1) The application of psychological principles in the process in teaching-learning.
Explanation: Software-based educational techniques use psychological theories to design learner-centered instructional materials.
105. What is not included in Computer Assisted Instruction out of the following?
(1) It is an important means of obtaining facts and information for teachers and students.
(2) It is interesting, brief and result oriented.
(3) Being machine based, it is without intimacy. ✅
(4) It provides objective and specific support to the students.
✅ Correct Answer: (3) Being machine based, it is without intimacy.
Explanation: While CAI has many advantages, the lack of human touch or intimacy is often cited as a limitation.
106. Which statement is inappropriate with regard to Computer Aided Learning?
(1) It is very expensive.
(2) Softwares are easily available for it. ✅
(3) There is a possibility of computers getting out of order frequently.
(4) There is a possibility of a student’s time getting wasted as he learns on his own in CAL.
✅ Correct Answer: (2) Softwares are easily available for it.
Explanation: Although many educational software are available, finding quality and curriculum-specific content can still be challenging—making option (2) inappropriate.
107. Programmed Instruction is a strategy which helps in sequencing teaching material in such a way that makes possible the expected behavioural change in students and also its measurement.
(1) Susan Markle ✅
(2) Smith and Moore
(3) Espich and Williams
(4) Core
✅ Correct Answer: (1) Susan Markle
Explanation: Susan Markle is closely associated with the design of effective programmed instructional materials focusing on behavioural outcomes.
108. Information Communication Technology is a process through which two or more persons exchange ideas, facts, feelings and effects in such a way that the person receiving communication can understand the meaning, purpose and use of the message well. This meaning of communication has been expounded by
(1) Coleman and Marsh
(2) Paul Legan ✅
(3) K.L. Kumar
(4) Stones
✅ Correct Answer: (2) Paul Legan
Explanation: Paul Legan defined ICT communication as an effective exchange where the receiver comprehends the message’s intention and application.
109. We would like ___ more help from you.
(1) many
(2) some ✅
(3) few
(4) a
✅ Correct Answer: (2) some
Explanation: “Some” is the correct determiner used with uncountable or plural count nouns when making polite requests or offers.
110. ___ better solution can still be worked out.
(1) More
(2) The
(3) A ✅
(4) Such
✅ Correct Answer: (3) A
Explanation: “A better solution” is grammatically appropriate because it refers to one among other possible solutions.
111. There is hardly ___ doubt his intentions.
(1) some
(2) much
(3) every
(4) any ✅
✅ Correct Answer: (4) any
Explanation: “Hardly” is a negative word, and when used in a sentence, it is followed by “any” to maintain negative concord. Hence, “hardly any doubt” is correct.
112. He is ___ last candidate to be interviewed.
(1) a
(2) the ✅
(3) very
(4) most
✅ Correct Answer: (2) the
Explanation: “The” is used before superlatives and ordinal numbers (first, last, etc.), so “the last candidate” is grammatically correct.
113. ___ student will have to fill in a separate form.
(1) All
(2) Much
(3) Each ✅
(4) Few
✅ Correct Answer: (3) Each
Explanation: “Each” is used when referring to individual members of a group separately. Each student must fill out their own form.
114. ___ people who came were also not interested in the programme.
(1) The few ✅
(2) Every
(3) Much
(4) Any
✅ Correct Answer: (1) The few
Explanation: “The few” is used when referring to a small number of specific people, which fits this context.
115. I do not ___ what he wants.
(1) knows
(2) knew
(3) know ✅
(4) knowing
✅ Correct Answer: (3) know
Explanation: After “do not,” the base form of the verb is used. So, “do not know” is correct.
116. She ___ the job last year.
(1) has left
(2) leaved
(3) was leave
(4) left ✅
✅ Correct Answer: (4) left
Explanation: The simple past “left” is appropriate with the time phrase “last year.” Present perfect (“has left”) is incorrect with a past time reference.
117. Many a flower ___ born to bloom unseen.
(1) are
(2) is ✅
(3) being
(4) having
✅ Correct Answer: (2) is
Explanation: “Many a” is singular in form and takes a singular verb. Hence, “is born” is correct.
118. One of my books ___ still missing.
(1) are
(2) were
(3) is ✅
(4) be
✅ Correct Answer: (3) is
Explanation: The subject is “One,” which is singular. “One of my books is missing” is correct.
119. They ___ eagerly for the result to be declared.
(1) have be waiting
(2) have been waited
(3) have been wait
(4) have been waiting ✅
✅ Correct Answer: (4) have been waiting
Explanation: Present perfect continuous tense requires “have/has been + verb-ing.” So “have been waiting” is correct.
120. Had you woken up earlier, you ___ seen a beautiful sunrise.
(1) would have ✅
(2) will have
(3) would be
(4) would have being
✅ Correct Answer: (1) would have
Explanation: This is a third conditional sentence. The correct structure is: Had + past participle, then would have + past participle.
121. Until he ___ his work, he will not be allowed to go out.
(1) finishing
(2) will have finish
(3) not finishes
(4) finishes ✅
✅ Correct Answer: (4) finishes
Explanation: After “until,” the present simple is used to refer to future time. So, “Until he finishes…” is correct.
122. Much ___ since you left this place.
(1) happened
(2) was happened
(3) has happened ✅
(4) be happening
✅ Correct Answer: (3) has happened
Explanation: The present perfect tense “has happened” is used to indicate an action that has occurred in an unspecified time until now.
123. I think you ___ to see a doctor immediately.
(1) used
(2) need ✅
(3) must
(4) should
✅ Correct Answer: (2) need
Explanation: “I think you need to…” is the correct structure to express immediate necessity.
124. You ___ be tired after such a long journey.
(1) dare
(2) have
(3) must ✅
(4) ought
✅ Correct Answer: (3) must
Explanation: “Must” is used to express a logical assumption based on evidence: “You must be tired.”
125. Open the door so that we ___ come in.
(1) can ✅
(2) must
(3) need
(4) will
✅ Correct Answer: (1) can
Explanation: “So that we can” expresses purpose and possibility.
126. One should not depend entirely ___ others.
(1) at
(2) over
(3) on ✅
(4) for
✅ Correct Answer: (3) on
Explanation: The verb “depend” is followed by the preposition “on” — “depend on others.”
127. He managed to walk ___ the broken bridge.
(1) between
(2) across ✅
(3) in
(4) at
✅ Correct Answer: (2) across
Explanation: “Across” indicates movement from one side to the other side of something — the correct preposition here.
128. I can no longer put up ___ his rude behaviour.
(1) from
(2) by
(3) at
(4) with ✅
✅ Correct Answer: (4) with
Explanation: “Put up with” is a phrasal verb meaning “tolerate.”
129. All of us have been invited ___ tea.
(1) on
(2) at
(3) to ✅
(4) by
✅ Correct Answer: (3) to
Explanation: “Invited to” is the correct prepositional phrase — “invited to tea.”
130. She was confident ___ her success.
(1) in
(2) of ✅
(3) for
(4) into
✅ Correct Answer: (2) of
Explanation: The correct prepositional phrase is “confident of” — meaning she believed in her success.
131. We were surprised ___ her sudden decision.
(1) on
(2) for
(3) from
(4) at ✅
✅ Correct Answer: (4) at
Explanation: The correct preposition after “surprised” is “at” when referring to an event or decision.
132. He said that he had not ___ a more enjoyable movie.
(1) seeing
(2) seen ✅
(3) saw
(4) see
✅ Correct Answer: (2) seen
Explanation: “Had not seen” is the correct past perfect tense form.
133. This dress is nearly ___ out.
(1) wear
(2) wore
(3) worn ✅
(4) wored
✅ Correct Answer: (3) worn
Explanation: “Worn out” is a correct phrasal adjective meaning “damaged or shabby from use.”
134. Today’s meeting has been ___
(1) called up
(2) called in
(3) called out
(4) called off ✅
✅ Correct Answer: (4) called off
Explanation: “Called off” means “cancelled.”
135. The students are required to ___ their assignments by Monday.
(1) hand out
(2) hand in ✅
(3) hand up
(4) hand on
✅ Correct Answer: (2) hand in
Explanation: “Hand in” means “submit.”
136. It isn’t easy to ___ children nowadays.
(1) bring up ✅
(2) care up
(3) speak up
(4) deal up
✅ Correct Answer: (1) bring up
Explanation: “Bring up” means to raise or rear children.
137. The thief ___ the house even though it was securely locked.
(1) breaked into
(2) broke into ✅
(3) braked into
(4) brake into
✅ Correct Answer: (2) broke into
Explanation: “Broke into” is the correct past tense of “break into,” a phrasal verb meaning to enter illegally.
138. “Where are you going for your holidays?” he said. (Change into Indirect Speech)
(1) He said me where was I going for my holidays.
(2) He asked if I was going for your holidays.
(3) He asked me where I was going for my holidays. ✅
(4) He wanted to know where was I going for holidays.
✅ Correct Answer: (3) He asked me where I was going for my holidays.
Explanation: In indirect speech, the question form becomes a statement form.
139. My mother said, “Don’t go very far into the sea.” (Indirect Speech)
(1) My mother told me about going far into the sea.
(2) My mother advised to not go out far into the sea.
(3) My mother told me not to go very far into the sea. ✅
(4) My mother suggested that I should not swim far.
✅ Correct Answer: (3) My mother told me not to go very far into the sea.
Explanation: “Don’t go” becomes “told me not to go” in indirect speech.
140. “Have you submitted your report yet?” she said. (Indirect Speech)
(1) She asked him if he had submitted his report till then. ✅
(2) She asked him whether he has submitted the report yet.
(3) She asked him if he was submitted the report till now.
(4) She asked him to submit his report immediately.
✅ Correct Answer: (1) She asked him if he had submitted his report till then.
Explanation: The present perfect in direct speech becomes past perfect in indirect speech.
141. The principal may sanction your leave today. (Change into Passive Voice)
(1) Your leave will be sanctioned by the Principal today.
(2) The Principal may be sanctioning your leave today.
(3) Your today’s leave can be sanction by the Principal.
(4) Your leave may be sanctioned by the Principal today. ✅
✅ Correct Answer: (4) Your leave may be sanctioned by the Principal today.
Explanation: “May sanction” changes to “may be sanctioned” in passive voice.
142. Everyone calls him a peacemaker. (Change into passive voice)
(1) A peacemaker he is called.
(2) He is called to be everyone’s peacemaker.
(3) He is called a peacemaker (by everyone). ✅
(4) Everyone is called a peacemaker by him.
✅ Correct Answer: (3) He is called a peacemaker (by everyone).
Explanation: Subject + is called + complement is the correct passive structure.
143. I can never forget you. (Change into an Interrogative sentence)
(1) Could I never forget you?
(2) Can I ever forget you? ✅
(3) Can you be forgot by me?
(4) Is it that I would never forget you?
✅ Correct Answer: (2) Can I ever forget you?
Explanation: This is the interrogative form of “I can never forget you.”
144. Everyone knows him. (Change into an interrogative sentence)
(1) Is he knows to anyone?
(2) Knows not everyone this man?
(3) Does not know him everyone?
(4) Does everyone know him? ✅
✅ Correct Answer: (4) Does everyone know him?
Explanation: Interrogative sentence in simple present tense uses “Does + subject + base verb.”
145. He liked my suggestion. (Change into a complex sentence)
(1) It was what he liked my suggestion.
(2) He liked what I suggested. ✅
(3) My suggestion was it that he liked.
(4) He liked me and suggested.
✅ Correct Answer: (2) He liked what I suggested.
Explanation: “What I suggested” is a noun clause used to make a complex sentence.
146. Being ill, he didn’t appear for the examination. (Change into a compound sentence)
(1) He being ill not appear for the examination.
(2) It was for the examination that he appeared ill.
(3) He was ill and did not appear for the examination. ✅
(4) Being ill and not appeared in the examination.
✅ Correct Answer: (3) He was ill and did not appear for the examination.
Explanation: A compound sentence uses two independent clauses joined by a coordinating conjunction (and).
147. “To call a spade a spade” is to be
(1) good at playing cards
(2) a perfect gardener
(3) firm and determined
(4) plain and straightforward in speech ✅
✅ Correct Answer: (4) plain and straightforward in speech
Explanation: The idiom means to speak honestly and directly.
148. The correct way of writing the date in a letter is
(1) 11, June, 2016
(2) June, 11, 2016
(3) June 11, 2016 ✅
(4) June the 11th of 2016
✅ Correct Answer: (3) June 11, 2016
Explanation: In formal letters, the standard American format is “Month Day, Year.”
149. At the close of a formal letter which begins with “Dear Sir/Madam” one must write
(1) Your’s Sincerely,
(2) Your Sincerely,
(3) Your’s faithfully,
(4) Yours faithfully, ✅
✅ Correct Answer: (4) Yours faithfully,
Explanation: “Yours faithfully” is used for formal letters when the recipient’s name is not known.
150. The following does not apply to a written report:
(1) past tense
(2) passive form of expression
(3) reported speech
(4) direct form of narration ✅
✅ Correct Answer: (4) direct form of narration
Explanation: Written reports typically use reported speech and avoid direct narration.
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School-Lecturer-English-2015-RPSC-Solved-Paper-Kashibishnoi